Since Tom is a legal purchaser in his state, this is an example of a
perfectly legal straw man purchase. So there is anti-gun Big Lie
number #3, that all straw man purchases are illegal.
Methinks there is an opportunity here for an OAQ (occasionally asked
questions, or oak): anti-gun Big Lies
*What you describe is NOT a strawman purchase at all as top anyone.*
The strawman refers to using another person to *deceive* the dealer and THE
GOVERNMENT by making the fake appear as the transferee to the dealer and to
the government so that the NICS check is run on the fakeer and the
paperwork
Thanks, Professor. That was kind of what I meant. "Strawman" in the ATF context has taken on a different meaning than the one we read about in Contracts 101.***GRJ***-Original Message-
From: "Olson, Joseph E."
Sent: May 8, 2013 2:14 PM
To: Greg Jacobs
The Value of Life: Constitutional Limits on Citizens’ Use of Deadly
Forcehttp://hq.ssrn.com/Journals/RedirectClick.cfm?url=http://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/papers.cfm?abstract_id=2256035partid=47512did=171898eid=188278554
[image: Free Download]
George Mason Law Review, Vol. 21,
The amazing thing is that the George Mason L. Rev. accepted it.
This is another of his recent papers: Do Androids Dream?': Personhood and
Intelligent Artifacts http://ssrn.com/abstract=1725983
On Wed, May 8, 2013 at 7:58 PM, C D Tavares c...@libertyhaven.com wrote:
The entire paper seems to
Ah, but a bill of attainder is a legal punishment for a crime -- a
denial of life, liberty, or property without due process. If a statute that
says It's OK to kill John Doe is a bill of attainder, that's because the
withdrawal of protection against murder is a government action that
But, IIRC, in every state some act reasonably perceived as criminal
(usually assault) by the decedent is required before self-defense becomes
an option. The initiating CHOICE is that of the decedent, not the
defending victim. That choice is the equivalent of due process. The
decedent is in
I'm not sure what authority there is for the proposition that
private choice is the equivalent of due process. For instance, I don't think
that a rule that says a person can kill anyone who he chooses to commit a
particular crime can then be killed at will by anyone - i.e., the
I think Tavares has it right about attainder since the Constitution forbids it,
it cannot be a legal punishment for a crime. Moreover, he is wright about
trying to constrain actions of individuals with the Constitution. Except for
treason, no crime is defined for any individual and no penalty
Here's one more thought that might be helpful here: The Bill
of Rights, including the clause barring deprivation of life, liberty, or
property without due process, wasn't enacted as some self-contained
philosophical framework; it was enacted against a backdrop of English law
The decedent can't be killed by anyone. He can only be killed by the
person that the decedent's choice put in danger of (reasonably perceived or
actual) imminent danger of death or GBH. The decedent made a bad choice
which caused the entire chain of events. He had his due process when he
made
But the hypothetical I gave is only an unconstitutional legal
punishment for a crime if withdrawal of legal protection counts as punishment
that requires due process. And that's the article's claim: That withdrawal of
legal protection in certain cases requires due process.
On May 8, 2013, at 10:22 PM, Volokh, Eugene vol...@law.ucla.edu wrote:
Rather, the difference is captured in the second paragraph
below, and it has come into American law as a matter of long-standing
tradition, a backdrop against which the Constitution was enacted and should
Under our Constitution issuing a bill of attainder is a crime in the form of a
legislative act.
Similarly, your hypotheticals are obvious illegal acts if offered by Congress,
being denials of due process.
I suspect the real issue is our government's claim to lawfully kill people
suspected of
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