Then... by "...which conjugate in qatal hiphil without the medial yod ..." you don't intend to refer to those verbs that have a real, an existing conjugation in both the qatal and the hiphil conjugations?
When you write "qatal hiphil" are you simply speaking of the "past hiphil" (as I call it)? To me, Karl, "qatal" rather refers to a conjugation type, the one, so to say, which is the basic one: "amarty", I said; "amarta", you (male) said; "amar", he said, "amarnu", we said.... Pere Porta 2011/4/21 K Randolph <[email protected]> > Pere: > > On Wed, Apr 20, 2011 at 8:54 PM, Pere Porta <[email protected]> wrote: > >> Karl, >> >> in the last part of your post you write: >> >> "Do you know of any other examples of a verb listed in dictionaries with a >> consonant, waw, tau, which conjugate in qatal hiphil without the medial yod >> and without a second tau where normal conjugation calls for one? Absent >> being able to show a pattern from ......" >> >> Please what does "qatal hiphil" mean? >> Maybe by "qatal" you mean what I call "past"? >> > > Yes. > > But why do you call it “past”? The normal way of referencing that > conjugation is to call it “qatal” because it does not refer to a tense. > Decades ago I was taught not to call it “past” because it doesn’t refer to > the past. > >> >> Regards from >> >> Pere Porta >> >> Karl W. Randolph. > > -- Pere Porta _______________________________________________ b-hebrew mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
