Karl:

I think XIIth Egyptian dynasty is much too early for a biblical Moses. You 
misunderstood me. What I meant is that a man fitting the description of a 
literate and educated Moses born in Egypt in the 16th-15th century, and raised 
in the royal Egyptian family, would have known the story of Sinuhe and others 
as part of his literary training, i.e. he knew hieratic. The story itself was 
extremely popular in Egypt down into the New Kingdom. Frankly it is somewhat 
inconceivable that literate "Hebrews" in Egypt and Canaan did not know and 
enjoy it, apparently required reading in that part of the world. 

You ask: "Why would he write in hieratic, when he wrote in Hebrew, not 
Egyptian? It makes no sense." But it does make sense and should probably be 
given much more attention. One remark made by William M. Schniedewind in his 
review of K. Van der Toorn's "Scribal Culture and the Making of the Hebrew 
Bible" (Cambridge: Harvard University Press, 2007) caught my eye: "The Egyptian 
background probably merits more  discussion especially since Egyptian supplies 
several significant loanwords  to Hebrew for the scribal toolbox (including 
words for “ink,” “seal,”  “papyrus,” and “palette”) as well as scribal terms 
for accounting and  hieratic numerals." 

Lastly, where is the statement made in the Torah that Moses wrote in Hebrew?

Tory Thorpe
Tel Aviv, Israel
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