On 4/28/2013 3:47 PM, Isaac Fried wrote:

> 1. It is but a mere guess that Biblical Hebrew was ever spoken. Also, as
> is common in poetry to interrogate  contemporary speakers could be well
> nigh useless, it is the author that needs to be interrogated.

Who doubts it, except for you? People generally do not write in a 
language they do not speak. I have raised the question before of whether 
the later OT materials reflect a "classical language" parallel to the 
Atticizing tendencies of Greek authors in late antiquity, but no one saw 
fit to address that question.

> 2. For "cognate" languages the level of cognition matters. Aramaic, is
> not Arabic, and certainly not "Akkadian". In fact, one may claim what
> one wants on Akkadian, there is no one to verify it or dispute it.

Level of cognition? Really? 
http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/cognition?s=t

cog·ni·tion

noun
1. the act or process of knowing; perception.

2. the product of such a process; something thus known, perceived, etc.

3. knowledge.

> 3. "Comparative Philology", is possibly an exercise in futility. I have
> not seen yet not one one example as to its usefulness.

You need to get out and do some real study, rather than just keep making 
stuff up.

> 4. One needs to clearly explain what one means by Hebrew "etymology".

You really don't know that etymology is?



-- 
N.E. Barry Hofstetter
Semper melius Latine sonat
The American Academy
http://www.theamericanacademy.net
The North American Reformed Seminary
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http://www.bible-translation.net

http://my.opera.com/barryhofstetter/blog
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