On 4/28/2013 5:06 PM, Isaac Fried wrote: > 1. As to "People generally do not write in a language they do not > speak", Biblical Hebrew and spoken Hebrew (as possibly used by King > David when mundanely conversing with his wives and children, as opposed > to the language he used to address God) are not "different" languages.
Ok, I think I would agree... So why claim that we don't know if biblical Hebrew was never spoken? > 2. "Cognate" is nebulous, as it says nothing on the genetic > relationships between these "cognates". "Cognate" simply means two (or more) languages descended from the same source language. Latin and Greek are obvious examples, Hebrew and Aramaic... > 3. "real study" = stuffing the head with baloney made up by some eminent > mumblers. I see – everybody else is mistaken, and you are here to set us straight. > 4. I am absolutely ignorant of what you mean by Hebrew etymology. Please > explain. Etymology simply means the development or history of the word in its language, often going back to when the language was a different language. I haven't studied historical linguistics for Semitic languages, but an example in English would be "nice," which can be traced back to the Latin *nescius* (foolish, ignorant). It comes into English through Norman French, and the semantic range suffers grievously along the way. It's also a good warning against assuming that the earlier use of the word must carry the same meaning as the later (the genetic fallacy). Don't worry, after this response, I won't waste any more of your time. -- N.E. Barry Hofstetter Semper melius Latine sonat The American Academy http://www.theamericanacademy.net The North American Reformed Seminary http://www.tnars.net Bible Translation Magazine http://www.bible-translation.net http://my.opera.com/barryhofstetter/blog _______________________________________________ b-hebrew mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
