Dear George,
I have two questions:
1) Is the meaning of the verb forms different in Hebrew prose and poetry? If
the answer is affirmative, do we find a similar difference in other languages?
(BTW, your clauses with examples of YIQTOL and QATAL are poetry).
2) Is there a difference in meaning between the YIQTOLs and QATALs in Psalm
2:1, 2?
Psalm 2:1, 2 (NIV): "Why do the nations conspire (QATAL) and the people plot
(YIQTOL) in vain?
The kings of the earth take their stand (YIQTOL)
and the rulers gather (QATAL) against the LORD and
his Anonted One."
Best regards,
Rolf Furuli
Stavern
Norway
Søndag 26. Mai 2013 10:33 CEST skrev George Athas <[email protected]>:
> Hi Karl!
>
> No the Yiqtol and Qatal don't have the same functions. There are key
> differences. In prose, the Qatal verb doesn't have the same indefiniteness as
> the Yiqtol. The Qatal presents action as definite (ie. concrete, specific,
> close up).
>
> Yiqtol: A gentle answer turns away wrath, but a harsh word stirs up anger.
> Qatal: A gentle answer turned away wrath, but a harsh word stirred up anger.
>
> The yiqtol is indefinite, and could apply to past, present, or future. In
> this case, it's gnomic present. But the Qatal would be speaking about a
> specific occasion when a gentle answer happened to turn away wrath and a
> harsh word stirred up anger. It's the difference between indefinite and
> definite.
>
>
> GEORGE ATHAS
> Dean of Research,
> Moore Theological College (moore.edu.au)
> Sydney, Australia
>
>
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