On Sun, May 26, 2013 at 03:16:49PM +0200, Rolf wrote: > Dear George, > > I have two questions: > > 1) Is the meaning of the verb forms different in Hebrew prose and poetry? If > the answer is affirmative, do we find a similar difference in other > languages? (BTW, your clauses with examples of YIQTOL and QATAL are poetry). >
..... > > Best regards, > > > Rolf Furuli > Stavern > Norway Dear Rolf, I'm actually convinced that the verbal forms in Hebrew are not _principially_ different between prose and poetry but that there are certain forms which have special meaning in specific contexts. Similarly you can find e.g. perfect "tense" in conditional sentences in Arabic: it doesn't denote the past tense (which is the usual meaning of this form) but does have a specialized function here which "overrides" the usual one. Best regards, Petr Tomasek _______________________________________________ b-hebrew mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
