Ken: On Fri, Jun 14, 2013 at 12:06 PM, Ken Penner <[email protected]> wrote:
> Do the following help? > > Joüon §59g: "In the light of Ugr. tštḥwy “she prostrates herself,” what > used to be considered hitpa̧ʿlẹl, represented almost entirely by the > frequent הִשְׁתַּחֲוָה to worship, to prostrate oneself, is most likely a > Hištafʿel of √ חוי." > >From where does he get this? > > Joüon §79t: > "Verb חיה: Hištafʿel form הִשְׁתַּחֲוָה to bow down, to prostrate oneself, > to worship. > The original root is חוי, i.e. ל״י (cf. § a). The conjugation is hištafʿel > (§ 59g; not Hitpaʿlel). The form expresses the causative reflexive action > to bow down, to prostrate oneself(). > In the perfect the primitive form is hištaḥway. The future *yištaḥway has > become יִשְׁתַּחֲוֶה (3rd pl. יִשְׁתַּחֲווּ). The apocopated form is > *yišta'ḥw, in which the consonantal w becomes the vowel u: וַיִּשְׁתַּ֫חוּ. > Are there any other verbs in Biblical Hebrew that have this conjugation? Can you list a few examples? If not, Biblical Hebrew does have a few quadriliteral roots, and this follows the pattern of being one, namely שחוה $XWH, used only in Hitpael. There appear to be a few uses of the root שחה $XH in the Hitpael. Its form is very similar to שחוה $XWH. That he uses the word “future” when there is no such conjugation in Biblical Hebrew doesn’t speak well of him. > Observation. In 2Kg 5.18 הִשְׁתַּחֲוָיָתִי the inf. has been vocalised in > Biblical Aramaic fashion (wrongly, actually, for with the suffixes the inf. > takes the ending ūt(). After a scribe had wrongly spelled וי, this sequence > was later vocalised mechanically in the Aramaic fashion. One should read > (in the 3rd pers.) הִשְׁתַּחֲווֹתוֹ." > Does he have any documentation to back up this claim? This verse reads quite well as written using an unpointed text. > Karl W. Randolph.
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