I don't want to stir this pot but I do have a question. If the Hebrew
prefix form derived from or was influenced by the Canaanite language
would we have any clue in a unpointed Hebrew text as to whether a verb
would be heard as either a /yaqtulu/ or /yaqtul? /I can't help thinking
that the original pronunciation may have made the use clearer.
Sincerely,
Michael Abernathy
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