There were many religious manuscripts written at this time and some of them were not included in the Bible, although are still studied for information.  The Council of Nicene back in the 300's got together and decided what was "canon" - that is, which books were determined to be the Word of the Lord for the Bible and which were only works of men.  In addition, (and I don't know how this came to be) the Catholic Bible has five books that the Protestant Bible does not include.

- Matt Small
  ----- Original Message -----
  From: Wayne Putterill
  To: CF-Community
  Sent: Thursday, October 16, 2003 4:12 AM
  Subject: RE: Mel Gibson's "THE PASSION"

  I'm far from being an expert on the Bible (being Buddhist for a start!),
  but I remember seeing a TV documentary years ago that claimed that there
  were originally far more than four gospels in the NT and that at some
  point an editing process occurred.

  A quick google search brought up these pages HYPERLINK
  "http://www.skypoint.com/~waltzmn/TextHist.html"http://www.skypoint.com/
  ~waltzmn/TextHist.html and HYPERLINK
  "http://www.infidels.org/library/modern/richard_carrier/NTcanon.html"htt
  p://www.infidels.org/library/modern/richard_carrier/NTcanon.html which
  seem to show that either my memory or the program were basically wrong,
  but that there have been a lot of changes and editing to the text over
  the years - "Contrary to common belief, there was never a one-time,
  truly universal decision as to which books should be included in the
  Bible.  It took over a century of the proliferation of numerous writings
  before anyone even bothered to start picking and choosing, and then it
  was largely a cumulative, individual and happenstance event, guided by
  chance and prejudice more than objective and scholarly research, until
  priests and academics began pronouncing what was authoritative and holy,
  and even they were not unanimous." (The Formation of the New Testament
  Canon)

  Warning - the links are to quite long articles which will either bore
  you rigid or take up far too much of your day!

  -----Original Message-----
  From: Kevin Graeme [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]
  Sent: 15 October 2003 20:31
  To: CF-Community
  Subject: Re: Mel Gibson's "THE PASSION"

  Sorry, I should have made clear that I don't know whether that bit in
  the
  bible is a victim of translation, revisionist history, or if it's
  correctly
  translated and Vatican II is engaging in revisionism. I was asking the
  question before because I don't know but I know it's within the realms
  of
  possibilty based on things I know about translation and the study of
  religions.

  <cf_speculation>
  It is possible for entire sections to be, if not mistranslated per se,
  misinterpreted. Many of the concepts are presented in such a way that
  they
  are rife with cultural interpretation. When referring to the "chief
  priests", what does that mean? Are they actually jewish priests? Are
  they
  roman priests, but maybe that was lost in understanding? Are they jewish
  slaves who the romans used as their figureheads to control the jewish
  population and they are given the title of "chief priests" by the
  romans?

  Take the latter. One reference to a roman installed "chief priest" here
  or
  there and a translator's approach to later sections will be skewed based
  on
  that misunderstanding.
  </cf_speculation>

  <cf_sociology>
  It's also interesting to look at the cultural background of the
  political
  necessity of a christ figure. At the time, the Caesar was god. Perhaps
  self-appointed, but culturally that was his position. There were also
  many,
  many jewish tribes/sects/groups what have you. There was particularly a
  differentiation of city and country jewish communities. The jewish
  people as
  a whole were trying to come up with a way to get out from under the
  romans.
  They needed an alternative to the Caesar. But they were also fighting
  amongst themselves for power, just as people in the city today have
  different social needs than people in the country. I've read accounts of
  many viable christ figures that came out of the jewish communities, but
  the
  personage of Jesus as a diametrical opposite to the rich, wealthy,
  powerful
  and ruthless Caesar was the one that history remembers and was
  eventually
  documented in the bible. Documented of course by the ones who put him in
  power.
  </cf_sociology>

  I'm just stringing together things I've read years ago and suppositions
  based on that. They provide a viable enough context for me to see the
  Vatacan II pronouncement as credible as any of the religious history.
  But
  I'm not a believer. If anything these days, I'm an armchair scholar.

  So my only question is, if intellectually there's enough reason to cast
  doubt on the story, why stick steadfastly to a story that justifies some
  people's hatred of some other people?

  -Kevin

  ----- Original Message -----
  From: "Matthew Small" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
  To: "CF-Community" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
  Sent: Wednesday, October 15, 2003 2:45 PM
  Subject: Re: Mel Gibson's "THE PASSION"

  > OK, that's a single word, but are there entire sections of text which
  are
  mistranslated so that it appears that Jews are responsible for the death
  of
  Jesus rather than some other group - the Romans, perhaps?  Like Brob,
  I'd
  always thought it was the Romans alone who put Jesus to death, but then
  I
  started reading the Bible.
  >
  >  Matthew 26:14-16
  > 14Then one of the Twelve--the one called Judas Iscariot--went to the
  chief
  priests 15and asked, "What are you willing to give me if I hand him over
  to
  you?" So they counted out for him thirty silver coins. 16From then on
  Judas
  watched for an opportunity to hand him over.
  >
  > John 18:12-13
  > 12Then the detachment of soldiers with its commander and the Jewish
  officials arrested Jesus. They bound him 13and brought him first to
  Annas,
  who was the father-in-law of Caiaphas, the high priest that year.
  >
  > I'm not holding anybody today responsible for the death of Jesus, but
  the
  Bible does say what it says.  Are you saying that these passages are
  incorrect?
  >
  > -Matthew Small
  >
  >
  > ----- Original Message -----
  >   From: Michael Dinowitz
  >   To: CF-Community
  >   Sent: Wednesday, October 15, 2003 3:12 PM
  >   Subject: Re: Mel Gibson's "THE PASSION"
  >
  >
  >   Sorry, the actual word is Michashefa, which is the feminine form
  used in
  the
  >   particular place. Its from the root Kishuf.
  >
  >   ----- Original Message -----
  >   From: "Michael Dinowitz" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
  >   To: "CF-Community" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
  >   Sent: Wednesday, October 15, 2003 2:55 PM
  >   Subject: Re: Mel Gibson's "THE PASSION"
  >
  >   > I can document it with a single word. Michushef. This Hebrew word
  has
  a
  >   > meaning of sorceress or witch. i.e. one who uses impure forces to
  affect
  >   > reality. A type of magic basically. Because of the way Greek is,
  the
  word
  >   > they used was basically one who uses herbs or poisons which was
  translated
  >   > later on as poisoner and on and on. King James has it as witch,
  which
  >   pisses
  >   > off the modern pagans.
  >   > What the word is and what it has become and is becoming over time
  and
  due
  >   to
  >   > 'popular' input shows exactly how the Christian Bible has changed.
  Yes,
  >   the
  >   > original Greek is the original Greek, but who here reads that? We
  all
  read
  >   > the English.
  >   > A change in a word can be a change in the entire story. Take my
  comment
  >   > about the last supper not being able to be the Passover Seder.
  That
  was
  >   > probably added later in a translation.
  >
  >
  >
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