On 5/16/2011 7:49 AM, selva wrote:
Considering only our world in the many world interpretation,it is a
separate causal domain..
there is no domain shear between the different domains(different
parallel worlds)..i.e.there is decoherence..
It is known that in our causal domain,there is cause and effect
relationships..
everything is happening because of a cause..everything is as it is
because it ought to be such.
There is a grand flow in the varying positions of atoms constituting
the universe..
If this is right,then how can we say ,we have free will ?


See Daniel Dennett's book "Elbow Room" for a good exposition of compatibilist free will.

why is there binary state at all ?

I don't understand that question? Computers use binary representations because it physically more efficient, although there have been computers that used base three, and of course analog computers.

if there is free will,how can we say everything affects everything ?

That depends on what you mean by free will and whether you think the world is deterministic. By "affects" do you mean "determines" or could it mean "change the probability of"?

why is the 50-50 probability arises ?
why is there probability functions at all ?

Probability is a mathematical model. It can be used to model events where we are ignorant of the causes, although we assume they exist. That's how it was invented, by game players. But it isn't necessary to assume there are unknown causes. The same model then describes inherent randomness.

If the positions of the atoms in my mind(my thoughts) now affect the
positions of the atoms in your brain(your thoughts) ,then does it mean
you don't have a free will ?
No.

Is our consciousness part of the grand consciousness (the universe).
Are we like the white cells(individually conscious) in our body,to the
universe..?

I have no reason to believe the premise of that question.

Then above all,the real question is why is there parallel worlds at
all ?

It's convenient model of measurement in quantum mechanics to avoid the question of why measurements need to be described by a physical process (projection) different from all other physical processes (unitary evolution by the Hamiltonian). Whether such worlds are "real" is controversial.

everything affects everything or not ?

In physics, things can only affect events in their future light cone and events are only affected by events in their past light cone. There are some theories, such as Bohm's quantum mechanics, which violate this rule, but none that are accepted.




P.S : i am just a student and i don't have real technical knowledge in
all these fields..i am just curious..what is these universe and why
does it exists at all..
so please bear with my ignorance.

Brent
"Why is there something rather than nothing?  Because nothing is unstable"
            --- Frank Wilczek, Nobel Laureate 2004

--
You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups 
"Everything List" group.
To post to this group, send email to everything-list@googlegroups.com.
To unsubscribe from this group, send email to 
everything-list+unsubscr...@googlegroups.com.
For more options, visit this group at 
http://groups.google.com/group/everything-list?hl=en.

Reply via email to