On 8/12/2012 1:57 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
Let phi_i be an enumeration of the (partial) computable function.
u is universal if phi_u(x, y) = phi_x(y). (x,y) = some number code for the
couple (x, y)
So can y be some number code for a pair (a,b) and b a code for a pair (c,d),...?
So phi_u is able to compute phi_i for all i. In that case we say that u emulate
x on y.
u can emulate itself, as in phi_u(u, x) = phi_u(x), but u does not emulate itself per
se, by its own functioning.
You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups
"Everything List" group.
To post to this group, send email to firstname.lastname@example.org.
To unsubscribe from this group, send email to
For more options, visit this group at