On 8/12/2012 1:57 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
Let phi_i be an enumeration of the (partial) computable function.

u is universal if phi_u(x, y) = phi_x(y).   (x,y) = some number  code for the 
couple (x, y)

So can y be some number code for a pair (a,b) and b a code for a pair (c,d),...?


So phi_u is able to compute phi_i for all i. In that case we say that u emulate 
x on y.

u can emulate itself, as in phi_u(u, x) = phi_u(x), but u does not emulate itself per se, by its own functioning.

You received this message because you are subscribed to the Google Groups 
"Everything List" group.
To post to this group, send email to everything-list@googlegroups.com.
To unsubscribe from this group, send email to 
For more options, visit this group at 

Reply via email to