> On 07-Jan-2015, at 12:41 pm, "'Chris de Morsella' via Everything List" 
> <[email protected]> wrote:
> 
>  
>  
> From: [email protected] 
> [mailto:[email protected]] On Behalf Of Bruno Marchal
> Sent: Tuesday, January 06, 2015 2:00 AM
> To: [email protected]
> Subject: Re: Why is there something rather than nothing? From quantum theory 
> to dialectics?
>  
>  
> On 04 Jan 2015, at 08:07, 'Roger' via Everything List wrote:
> 
> 
> In regard to:
> 
> "If nothing existed; would it remain nothing?"
> 
> This is exactly what I'm suggesting.  It would not remain "nothing".  We 
> usually think of the situation when you get rid of all matter, energy, 
> space/volume, time, abstract concepts, minds, etc. as "nothing".  But, what 
> I'm saying is that this supposed "nothing" really isn't the lack of all 
> existent entities.  That "nothing" would be the entirety of all that is 
> present; that's it; there's nothing else.  It would be the all.  An entirety 
> is a grouping defining what is contained within and therefore an existent 
> entity, based on my definition of an existent entity.  

So you mean 'nothing' is 'potential for all' while 'everything' is the 'kinetic 
of all'? 
Samiya 

>  
> Your set comprehension axiom. You are working in some set theory, which is 
> provably too much in case you assume brain works without magic 
> (computationalism).
>  
>  
> 
> 
> So, even what we think of as "nothing" is an existent entity or "something". 
>  
> If only through the "we" which think about that nothing. 
>  
> Is anything possible at all without an observer?
> -Chris
>  
>  
> 
> 
> This means that "something" is non-contingent.  It's necessary.  There is no 
> such thing as the lack of all existent entities.
>  
>  
> It is necessary for having an observer, or a dreamer, conceiving nothing, but 
> then you assume "we", which usually is among what we would like to explain 
> the existence. In all case we have to do some assumption, notably about the 
> thing we talk about before deciding if they exist or not.
>  
> Like computationalism offers the best we can hope for the mind-body problem, 
> I think it does the same for the question of this thread. It is a bit 
> frustrating in the sense that it shows that there are minimal thing that we 
> will never explain the origin of (like the "basic" Turing universal system).
>  
> Bruno
>  
> 
> 
> 
> On Saturday, January 3, 2015 1:17:27 AM UTC-5, cdemorsella wrote:
>  
>  
> From: [email protected] [mailto:[email protected]] On 
> Behalf Of meekerdb
> Sent: Friday, January 02, 2015 9:44 PM
> To: [email protected]
> Subject: Re: Why is there something rather than nothing? From quantum theory 
> to dialectics?
>  
> On 1/2/2015 9:05 PM, 'Roger' via Everything List wrote:
> Even if the word "exists" has no use because everything exists, it seems 
> important to know why everything exists.  How is it that a thing can exist?  
> What I suggest is that a grouping defining what is contained within is an 
> existent entity.  Then, you can use this to try and answer the other question 
> of "Why is there something rather than nothing?".
> 
> If everything exists, what doesn't exist?  Nothing.
>  
> If nothing existed; would it remain nothing?
> -Chris
> 
> Brent
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> http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/
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>  
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