On 12 February 2015 at 16:16, meekerdb <[email protected]> wrote:
> On 2/11/2015 7:20 PM, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:

>>>> If zombies are impossible then what can be shown is that IF a certain
>>>> being is conscious THEN it is impossible to make a zombie equivalent.
>>>> But this cannot be used to show that consciousness exists either
>>>> generally or in a particular case.
>>>
>>>
>>> Okay but I fail to see the connection of this statement to the one I made
>>> above.
>>
>> The relevance is that I'm not saying that consciousness results in
>> physically detectable differences in behaviour, even though I am
>> saying that a certain type of behaviour may necessarily be associated
>> with consciousness. It's a bit subtle - it might seem contradictory at
>> first glance.
>>
>>>>>> I invoke Chalmers'
>>>>>> fading qualia argument, which shows that if consciousness were
>>>>>> contingent rather than necessary it would be possible to make partial
>>>>>> zombies. Partial zombies are absurd; if they are not absurd then we
>>>>>> may as well say consciousness does not exist.
>>>>>>
>>>>> If partial zombies are absurd, then so are full zombies.
>>>>> Epiphenominalism
>>>>> makes full zombies logically (if not physically by your definition)
>>>>> possible. Therefore I also find epihpenominalism absurd as the idea of
>>>>> partial zombies.
>>>>
>>>> I agree that full zombies are also absurd. There is a potential
>>>> problem here with the terms "absurd", "physically possible",
>>>> "logically possible", "conceptually possible". I think zombies are
>>>> conceptually possible, but I think they are logically impossible. I
>>>> don't see why you say epiphenomenalism (as opposed to some other
>>>> theory?) makes zombies logically possible.
>>>
>>>
>>> Epihpenominalism makes zombies not only logically possible, but
>>> physically
>>> undetectable (because consciousness is presumed to have no effects, so
>>> whether it is present or not can never be ascertained). Under
>>> epihpenominalism, no physical text, measurement, or experiment, could
>>> ever
>>> detect the presence of consciousness is some presumably conscious entity.
>>> Therefore, it could be a zombie, and no physical test, experiment, or
>>> measurement could ever (not even in theory) separate a zombie from a
>>> non-zombie. This all follows directly from the standard definition of
>>> epihpenominalism. Maybe there is no proof of another being being
>>> conscious
>>> or not, but that in itself is different from epiphenominalism, which
>>> further
>>> supposes that the existence of consciousness has no physical consequences
>>> nor yields any third-personal detectible differences in outcome or
>>> behavior.
>>
>> Nevertheless, these two statements are compatible:
>>
>> 1. There is no way to determine if a being is conscious or not.
>> 2. Given that a particular being is conscious, there could be no
>> zombie equivalent of that being.
>
>
> Those don't seem compatible to me.  2 implies that there is some outward
> behavior that the conscious being exhibits which cannot be exhibited by a
> zombie.  So the presence of that behavior is a test to determine whether a
> being is conscious.  The test is essentially what Turing proposed.
>
> So I don't understand how you maintain the compatibility?  Is it because we
> cannot identify the crucial outward behavior?  I would agree that we an
> never be certain we've identified it; a Turning test could go on for a long
> time and still reach the wrong conclusion.  But I don't think we need to
> achieve certainty.

My claim is that IF a being is conscious THEN its zombie equivalent
will also be conscious. This does not give us a test to determine if
it is conscious.


-- 
Stathis Papaioannou

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