On Saturday, February 14, 2015, meekerdb <[email protected]> wrote:

>  On 2/12/2015 10:23 PM, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:
>
>
>
> On Friday, February 13, 2015, meekerdb <[email protected]
> <javascript:_e(%7B%7D,'cvml','[email protected]');>> wrote:
>
>> On 2/11/2015 10:39 PM, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:
>>
>>> On 12 February 2015 at 16:16, meekerdb <[email protected]> wrote:
>>>
>>>> On 2/11/2015 7:20 PM, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:
>>>>
>>>>>  If zombies are impossible then what can be shown is that IF a certain
>>>>>>> being is conscious THEN it is impossible to make a zombie equivalent.
>>>>>>> But this cannot be used to show that consciousness exists either
>>>>>>> generally or in a particular case.
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> Okay but I fail to see the connection of this statement to the one I
>>>>>> made
>>>>>> above.
>>>>>>
>>>>> The relevance is that I'm not saying that consciousness results in
>>>>> physically detectable differences in behaviour, even though I am
>>>>> saying that a certain type of behaviour may necessarily be associated
>>>>> with consciousness. It's a bit subtle - it might seem contradictory at
>>>>> first glance.
>>>>>
>>>>>   I invoke Chalmers'
>>>>>>>>> fading qualia argument, which shows that if consciousness were
>>>>>>>>> contingent rather than necessary it would be possible to make
>>>>>>>>> partial
>>>>>>>>> zombies. Partial zombies are absurd; if they are not absurd then we
>>>>>>>>> may as well say consciousness does not exist.
>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>  If partial zombies are absurd, then so are full zombies.
>>>>>>>> Epiphenominalism
>>>>>>>> makes full zombies logically (if not physically by your definition)
>>>>>>>> possible. Therefore I also find epihpenominalism absurd as the idea
>>>>>>>> of
>>>>>>>> partial zombies.
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> I agree that full zombies are also absurd. There is a potential
>>>>>>> problem here with the terms "absurd", "physically possible",
>>>>>>> "logically possible", "conceptually possible". I think zombies are
>>>>>>> conceptually possible, but I think they are logically impossible. I
>>>>>>> don't see why you say epiphenomenalism (as opposed to some other
>>>>>>> theory?) makes zombies logically possible.
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> Epihpenominalism makes zombies not only logically possible, but
>>>>>> physically
>>>>>> undetectable (because consciousness is presumed to have no effects, so
>>>>>> whether it is present or not can never be ascertained). Under
>>>>>> epihpenominalism, no physical text, measurement, or experiment, could
>>>>>> ever
>>>>>> detect the presence of consciousness is some presumably conscious
>>>>>> entity.
>>>>>> Therefore, it could be a zombie, and no physical test, experiment, or
>>>>>> measurement could ever (not even in theory) separate a zombie from a
>>>>>> non-zombie. This all follows directly from the standard definition of
>>>>>> epihpenominalism. Maybe there is no proof of another being being
>>>>>> conscious
>>>>>> or not, but that in itself is different from epiphenominalism, which
>>>>>> further
>>>>>> supposes that the existence of consciousness has no physical
>>>>>> consequences
>>>>>> nor yields any third-personal detectible differences in outcome or
>>>>>> behavior.
>>>>>>
>>>>> Nevertheless, these two statements are compatible:
>>>>>
>>>>> 1. There is no way to determine if a being is conscious or not.
>>>>> 2. Given that a particular being is conscious, there could be no
>>>>> zombie equivalent of that being.
>>>>>
>>>>
>>>> Those don't seem compatible to me.  2 implies that there is some outward
>>>> behavior that the conscious being exhibits which cannot be exhibited by
>>>> a
>>>> zombie.  So the presence of that behavior is a test to determine
>>>> whether a
>>>> being is conscious.  The test is essentially what Turing proposed.
>>>>
>>>> So I don't understand how you maintain the compatibility?  Is it
>>>> because we
>>>> cannot identify the crucial outward behavior?  I would agree that we an
>>>> never be certain we've identified it; a Turning test could go on for a
>>>> long
>>>> time and still reach the wrong conclusion.  But I don't think we need to
>>>> achieve certainty.
>>>>
>>> My claim is that IF a being is conscious THEN its zombie equivalent
>>> will also be conscious.
>>>
>>
>> But that asserts no being is conscious. The definition of "zombie
>> equivalent" is a being that acts the same and is NOT conscious.  So the
>> conclusion "its zombie equivalent will be conscious" is a direct
>> contradiction and always false.  So it is of the form "If X then FALSE."
>> which is false whenever X is true, i.e. whenever "a being is conscious."
>> So the statement can only be true if "a being is conscious" is always
>> false.  But I know at least one being that is conscious.  So it's
>> empirically false.
>>
>
>  OK, it was clumsy phrasing on my part. I meant that IF a being is
> conscious THEN its zombie equivalent would be impossible, because it would
> also be conscious and hence not a zombie.
>
>
> You mean a conscious being cannot have a zombie equivalent, i.e. a being
> that behaves the same but is not conscious.  In other words the
> philosophical zombie is impossible: if a being is conscious then there can
> be no other being that behaves the same but is not conscious.
> Consciousness (nomologically?) entails some difference in behavior.  Right?
>

Yes; but although this means there is a difference in behaviour between
conscious and non-conscious beings, it does not provide a test for
consciousness.


-- 
Stathis Papaioannou

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