On 4/27/2017 10:18 AM, David Nyman wrote:


On 26 Apr 2017 7:26 p.m., "Brent Meeker" <[email protected] <mailto:[email protected]>> wrote:



    On 4/26/2017 12:32 AM, David Nyman wrote:


    On 25 Apr 2017 11:07 p.m., "Brent Meeker" <[email protected]
    <mailto:[email protected]>> wrote:



        On 4/25/2017 1:08 AM, David Nyman wrote:


        On 25 Apr 2017 5:15 a.m., "Brent Meeker"
        <[email protected] <mailto:[email protected]>> wrote:



            On 4/24/2017 10:02 AM, David Nyman wrote:


            On 24 Apr 2017 7:32 a.m., "Brent Meeker"
            <[email protected] <mailto:[email protected]>> wrote:

                I don't think there's any question that
                non-physical things exist, like chess and insurance
                and computations. The question was whether the
                assumption that computations can instantiate a
                mind, i.e. the possibility of a conscious robot,
                entails a contradiction of something. The
                "something" having to do with physics, is part of
                what I would like eulicidated. Bruno says it
                reverses the relationship of physics and
                psychology...but that's more of a polemic slogan
                than entailment of a contradiction.


            I don't think so. Here's the way I see it. Let's say we
            accept as a hypothesis a computational ontology. Since
            this requires no more than the natural numbers with +
             and * this amounts to an ontology of arithmetic.
            Platonism be damned, our interest at this point is
            merely in seeing where the hypothesis can take us. So,
            computationalism leads us to the extension of the UD,
            which in turn gives us the digital machine, aka the
            fully fungible universal computational device. The
            reversal then is between role of the "psychology" of
            that universal machine and the subset of the trace of
            the UD assumed to implement physics.

            The UD doesn't have a "psychology".  Bruno talks about
            the "beliefs" of a universal theorem prover in
            arithmetic...but that's not a UD.   And was is "the
            trace of the UD".


        Are you kidding? How long have we all been discussing all this?

              To talk of taking a "subset of the trace" sounds to me
            like handing waving: We'll make a machine that writes
            all possible sentences and then there's a subset that
            describes the world.


        Ok, so now you know what it is. The point is just that comp
        is true then it exists. If not it doesn't. We've been
        discussing the consequences of the former case. If you still
        want to believe in the necessity of a physical computer, we
        only have to accept that comp would be true in the presence
        of any such computer capable of running the UD.



            The former is now required to play the role of filter
            or selector on behalf of the latter; it's what
            distinguishes​ it from the much more general
            computational background. Of course that "filtration",
            by assumption, essentially equates to the extremely
            high probability of that very subset being required to
            support its own self-selection.

            Are you saying this "subset of the trace" must have a
            high probability of existing, or it has, by some
            measure, a high probability relative to other stuff not
            in the trace.  If the latter, and if the measure can be
            defined, that would be an interesting result; but when
            I've asked about this in the past Bruno has just said
            it's a hoped for result.


        I'm glad you agree it would be interesting.


            I understand that Bruno wants to take thoughts as
            fundamental and the wants to identify thoughts with
            provable or computable propositions in arithmetic.  He
            thinks that the modality of "provable" is somehow a good
            model of "believes" or "thinks".  But even if that were
            true (I don't think it is) it fails to account for the
            physical world which one thinks about and acts in.


            IOW it's selection by observation, with the part of
            "universal point of view" falling to the suitably
            programmed digital machine. It from bit really, but
            without the prior commitment to physics as the
            unexplained (aka primitive) assumption. OK?

            You don't seem to have even mentioned a contradiction.


        You didn't ask about the contradiction. You asked about the
        reversal. Are you clearer on what is meant by that now? I'm
        not asking if you believe it, just can we agree what is meant?

        I did ask about the contradiction. From above: "The question
        was whether the assumption that computations can instantiate
        a mind, i.e. the possibility of a conscious robot, entails a
        contradiction of something. The "something" having to do with
        physics, is part of what I would like eulicidated."  So, no
        I'm not clear what the reversal means.  It is claimed to
        contradict the idea that matter is in some sense fundamental,
        e.g. Democritus "Nothing exists except atoms and the void;
        all else is opinion."  But in my view ontology is theory
        dependent, i.e. you find a theory that works well as an
        explanation and a predictor and then that theory provides an
        ontology: the POVI  (intersubjective observable) elements of
        the theory.  So I'm not clear on what is the reversal.  The
        function of bodies, including brains, is, we think, within
        the scope of physics.  Is this "reversed"...to what exactly?


    Ok, I see that this is an important misunderstanding. If physics
    is taken to be the fundamental science, in the sense that a
    completed physics will not demand further explanation, then
    consciousness will clearly have to be explained entirely on the
    basis of that fundamental science. For example, you yourself have
    said that you believe the controversy will be settled by a
    completed neuroscience.

    That's slightly different than what I said.   I pointed out that
    Newton's theory of gravity did not explain gravity, and neither
    does Einstein's.  When we have a theory that is effective, i.e.
    makes only accurate and even surprising predictions, when then
    think of it as "explaining" the phenomena.  But this "explanation"
    is not at all like the explanation that was sought before the
    instrumentally successful theory.  This is exemplified in the case
    of Newton: people wanted an explanation of the the gravitational
    force - not just a formula to calculate it - and Newton answered,
    "Hyposthesi non fingo."

So my expectation is that cognitive science will go the same way. When we have learned to make AI robots to behave as conscious
    people behave, the "hard problem of consciousness" will be seen to
    have been the wrong question - like "What causes the force of
    gravity?"  Mystics will still ponder it and it will still be
    controversial among metaphysicians.


    By contrast, if comp is to be assumed in the fundamental role,
    then the emergence of the universal machine will then *precede*
    that of physics.

    I assume you mean "precede" in some explanatory, not temporal,
    sense.  But I don't think explanations are necessarily
    hierarchical with a bottom; I think they are better thought of as
    circular.  If they bottom out anywhere, it is ostensively.


    What Bruno is at pains to show is then that the machine possesses
    a "point of view", aka its psychology, in terms of which physics
    will emerge as a complex of inter-subjective appearances (just as
    you, Bruce and indeed Bruno and I require). Note by the way that
    this immediately establishes in principle the elusive
    interior/exterior distinction. It would also have to be the case,
    if comp is indeed to succeed, that the computations corresponding
    to those physical appearances would themselves typify (massively)
    those supporting human level subjectivity. So in this way
    sentient entities would "select" the very physical environments
    necessary for their own existence.

    But that seems to a chauvinistic view of the situtation.  One
    could as well say the physical environment selected the creatures
    that can exist in it.  But whichever way you look at it, it
    doesn't look to me like a contradiction between the computational
    theory of mind and physics.


I don't understand why we keep talking past each other like this. I'm trying to keep the issues of contradiction and reversal distinct. Above, I was talking about the reversal. It is, as you rightly say, a reversal of explanatory priority and it can't be waved away into virtuous explanatory circularity, because logically you need the notion of machine psychology before "physical" computations can thereby be isolated from computations in general.

I see that is the case if you start your explanation from arithmetical realism and Church-Turing. But if you start from physics->biology->evolution->arithmetic you derive "machine psychology".

Then at that point (but not before) you're again right that one can then equally say that the environment selects its sentient inhabitants. We will have reached a point of virtuous explanatory equilibrium.

So are we in agreement that both physics can be explained from computationalism and computationalism can be explained from physics? The latter seems, by some on this list, to be an absurdity (the "hard problem"). I would agree that it's far from demonstrated. But on the other hand the derivation of physics from computationalism isn't demonstrated either - it seems to rest on the idea that whatever is reasonably consistent must be computable so physics must be computable, even though we have no idea what that computation is or what physics may result.


Of course the contradiction

What contradiction? I have asked for a clear definition of this contradiction, but so far I've only heard that there isn't actually a contradiction - rather a reductio. But a reductio doesn't tell you which premise (or inference) is wrong.

Brent

is also implied because this cannot be done on the basis that physics is itself irreducible to computation, if the comp theory of mind is to have any serious content whatsoever. I've already said why I think the contradiction is obvious for anyone who takes the view that computationalism is a secondary inference from physical objects. I haven't yet seen an adequate argument from you in response.

David



    Brent



    Of course the foregoing is not proven but it's implied by comp
    and it hasn't been disproved either. Anyway, in a nutshell,
    that's the reversal (i.e of explanatory priority) between physics
    and machine psychology.

    David



        Brent
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