On Thursday, March 3, 2022 at 1:38:20 AM UTC+1 meeke...@gmail.com wrote:

>
>
> On 3/2/2022 2:34 PM, Tomas Pales wrote:
>
>
> On Wednesday, March 2, 2022 at 10:54:50 PM UTC+1 meeke...@gmail.com wrote:
>
>>
>>
>> On 3/2/2022 1:42 PM, Tomas Pales wrote:
>>
>>
>> On Wednesday, March 2, 2022 at 10:07:22 PM UTC+1 meeke...@gmail.com 
>> wrote:
>>
>>>
>>>
>>> On 3/2/2022 12:58 PM, Tomas Pales wrote:
>>>
>>>
>>> On Wednesday, March 2, 2022 at 9:11:34 PM UTC+1 meeke...@gmail.com 
>>> wrote:
>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>> On 3/2/2022 2:41 AM, Tomas Pales wrote:
>>>>
>>>>
>>>> On Wednesday, March 2, 2022 at 4:28:48 AM UTC+1 meeke...@gmail.com 
>>>> wrote:
>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> On 3/1/2022 4:00 PM, Tomas Pales wrote:
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> On Wednesday, March 2, 2022 at 12:17:43 AM UTC+1 meeke...@gmail.com 
>>>>> wrote:
>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> On 3/1/2022 1:59 PM, Tomas Pales wrote:
>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> On Tuesday, March 1, 2022 at 8:14:31 PM UTC+1 meeke...@gmail.com 
>>>>>> wrote:
>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> But before we can assess whether something has a consistent 
>>>>>> description we need to specify the description precisely. With a vague 
>>>>>> description we may be missing an inconsistency lurking somewhere in it 
>>>>>> or 
>>>>>> there may appear to be an inconsistency that is not really there. For 
>>>>>> example, if we try to describe a quantum object in terms of classical 
>>>>>> physics the description will not be precise enough and the assumptions 
>>>>>> inherent in those terms will be contradictory. The ideal description 
>>>>>> would 
>>>>>> reveal the complete structure of the object down to empty sets but we 
>>>>>> can't 
>>>>>> physically probe objects around us to that level.
>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> I think that's a cheat.   It's not that classical physics was 
>>>>>>> imprecise.  It was just wrong.  QM and Newtonian mechanics even have 
>>>>>>> different ontologies.  If you're wrong about the subject matter no 
>>>>>>> amount 
>>>>>>> of logic will correct that.  Logic only explicates what is implicit in 
>>>>>>> the 
>>>>>>> premises.  It's a cheat to appeal to an ideal description when you have 
>>>>>>> no 
>>>>>>> way of producing such a description  or knowing if you have achieved it 
>>>>>>> or 
>>>>>>> even knowing whether one exists .
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> It's not a cheat, it's a complete mathematical description. Every 
>>>>>> mathematical structure can be ultimately described as a pure set. 
>>>>>> Classical 
>>>>>> physics and quantum physics have not been described as pure sets and so 
>>>>>> they are not complete mathematical descriptions. The fact that it is not 
>>>>>> feasible for us to achieve such a description of physical structures 
>>>>>> doesn't mean that it doesn't exist.
>>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> And the fact that you can form a sentence using the word doesn't mean 
>>>>>> it exists either.  
>>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> Which word?
>>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>> "Complete" mathematical description.
>>>>>
>>>>
>>>> I said it because according to set theory every mathematical structure 
>>>> can be reduced to a pure set. So a pure set would be a complete 
>>>> mathematical description of any object. It basically means that an object 
>>>> is analyzed down to its smallest parts (empty sets). This internal 
>>>> structure of the object also establishes all the object's relations to all 
>>>> other objects, including for example the relation of "insurability" 
>>>> between 
>>>> a car and insurance providers.
>>>>
>>>>
>>>> Which means you are assuming the world is a mathematical structure.  In 
>>>> other words begging the question.
>>>>
>>>
>>> Yeah, I am assuming that things constitute collections - that's what a 
>>> mathematical structure is. What other kind of structure can there be?
>>>
>>>
>>> Don't you see that "things" and "collections" are concepts we impose on 
>>> the world.  Didn't you notice when the whole ontology of the world shifted 
>>> from particles to fields?  No?  Did you see metphysicians rushing to revise 
>>> their world views?
>>>
>>
>> And the concept of "collections" obviously corresponds to the world. 
>> After all, how could it be otherwise? If there are two somethings they 
>> automatically constitute a collection of two somethings. Particles or 
>> fields, whatever - they have mathematical descriptions and mathematical 
>> descriptions are in principle reducible to pure sets.
>>
>>
>> One of their mathematical descriptions used to be that two different 
>> something could not be in the same place at the same time.  That two 
>> identical things must be the same thing.  It's just logic.
>>
>
> But mathematics doesn't demand that you can't associate different sets 
> with the same location in a topological space. They chose to describe 
> objects that cannot be associated with the same location in spacetime 
> because it worked in classical physics... until more precise measurements 
> showed that some objects in our world (bosons) are not like that. Two 
> things with all the same properties are one thing. Two exact copies are not 
> the same thing because they differ in one property - their position in 
> reality (and thus in their relations to other things).
>
>
>>
>> Yes, all mathematical descriptions can be reduced to sets and relations.  
>> I'm told they can also be reduced to categories, but haven't studied 
>> category theory.  Russell and Whitehead thought they can be reduced to 
>> logic.  And things admit of mathematical description.  But you've leaped 
>> over all that to things* are *their mathematical description.
>>
>
> Things correspond to a mathematical description.
>
>
> Then we agree that things and their mathematical descriptions are not 
> identities.  I contend that the difference is that some mathematical 
> descriptions have no referent.
>

Descriptions are just words, symbols, notations which refer to things. Why 
would some mathematical descriptions have a referent and others not?
 

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