On 28 Oct 2005 at 16:08, Darcy James Argue wrote: > On 28 Oct 2005, at 3:41 PM, David W. Fenton wrote: > > > Can someone explain to me the musical circumstances in which a slur > > between layers makes any sense at all? > > Well, for starters, the first measure might have two layers and the > following measure only one. Happens all the time in piano music.
And why are Voice1/Voice2 not the correct solution, then? It's in piano music that V1/V2 are most appropriate. I don't quite understand how you would justify a slur between two notes that are in different voices. Now, string bowings, that's a different situation, since the slur is serving a completely different purpose. But, again, V1/V2 seem the appropriate solution, not layers. I have thought for a long time that many many people never really understood V1/V2 and it because of that V1/V2 developed an undeserved bad reputation. V1/V2 is *much* easier for ad hoc voice branching within piano parts (and, say, solo violin music, like the Bach Sonatas and Partitas), because you'd don't have to pad the other layers with hidden rests. -- David W. Fenton http://www.bway.net/~dfenton David Fenton Associates http://www.bway.net/~dfassoc _______________________________________________ Finale mailing list [email protected] http://lists.shsu.edu/mailman/listinfo/finale
