"Greg Crawford" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:

> Jonathan wrote:

>> * for the purposes of any assessment referred to above, "marriage" (the
>> voluntary, lifelong union of a male and a female to the exclusion of all
>> others) is equivalent to a voluntary, lifelong union of two people 
>> of the same gender to the exclusion of all others (regardless of 
>> whether the latter is called a "marriage" or not).
>
> In the context of the debate I believe you have assumed what you have 
> to prove. Because those opposed to the ordination of candidates who 
> engage in homosexual behaviour believe that homosexual behaviour is
> morally wrong in and of itself.

This comes back to my main point. To use your phrase above, having worked to discern 
the will of God on this issue, I understand that homosexual behaviour is NOT morally 
wrong in and of itself. Furthermore, I find this to be consistent with the bible. 
Similarly, others have done the same work and determined that it IS morally wrong in 
and of itself and think this view is consistent with the bible.

I think the source of the difference is in the way we understand the role of the bible 
in determining the will of God. It is this question I think the church needs to 
address.

Jonathan

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