1. The lines aren't "imaginary". They are real and tangible and paid for with blood.
2. We the People gave the state control over those lines. 3. Markets have always referred to the buying and selling of goods in a particular area. This is true of any definition. 4. The government was given control of the borders and protection of the markets when the government was created by "We the people" and as long as we have a government (as long as there are people), it will retain control of such. 5. See the U.S. Constitution. --- In [email protected], "Thomas L. Knapp" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: > > Quoth Paul Ireland: > > > 1. You own your property. Nobody has disputed that. > > > > 2. You have the right to move your property unless it's across > > national borders in which case, you pay purchase the PRIVILEGE. > > How did the state acquire legitimate ownership of these imaginary > lines on the ground such that it is entitled to determine who may or > may not move themselves or their goods over those imaginary lines? > > > 4. A market does not exist for the period of time it takes for one > > person to sell a good or service to another. The term "market" is > > used to describe buying and selling within a particular location. > > That is one definition of "market." There are others -- and yours does > not accord with the usual libertarian understanding of the term. Most > libertarians define "market" in the larger sense of "THE market" i.e. > "the world of commercial activity where goods and services are bought > and sold" (WordNet) and any transaction which takes place in the > context of "THE market," rather than in the geographical sense of "a > particular marketplace." > > > And > > if you sell within that location (in this case within the borders of > > that country) you are subject to the rules of that market (aka the > > laws) and you must pay a fee for the protection of the market and > > access to the market for your goods. > > How did the state come into legitimate possession of an exclusive > contract for protection of, or ownership of access routes to, a > particular marketplace? > > > You > > don't have a right to sell your property in my yard. My charging you > > to sell it in my yard is not an infringement of your property rights > > even if someone else wants to buy your goods. > > Where is the state's "yard" and what is its claim to legitimate > ownership of that "yard?" > > Tom Knapp > ForumWebSiteAt http://groups.yahoo.com/group/Libertarian Yahoo! Groups Links <*> To visit your group on the web, go to: http://groups.yahoo.com/group/Libertarian/ <*> To unsubscribe from this group, send an email to: [EMAIL PROTECTED] <*> Your use of Yahoo! Groups is subject to: http://docs.yahoo.com/info/terms/
