[Krimel]
James is quite clear that concepts arise from and are subservient to
perception. That is what empiricism is, anyway you slice it. He certainly
acknowledges their interrelations but when push comes to shove perception
wins. 
Ron:
If he was quite clear about the primacy of percept, then why did he forward
the idea of a radical empiricism to replace it?

[Krimel]
Exactly!
He didn't and it doesn't.


Ron:
If I understand you correctly, you maintain that William James is of the
school of Hume and Locke as in the reduction of perception to sense data
correct? I have to say this goes against anything I have ever read on the
subject of radical empiricism or can dig up online about William James. I'm
really trying to see what you mean, Can you point me to any resources? 

[Krimel]
I get it. I was having trouble figuring out what you were getting at with
your last post. No, I have not been saying that James is the same as Hume
and Locke. He is adding the experience of conjunction and disjunction to
overcome the limits of simple sensory empiricism. In terms of radical
empiricism his aim to still to overcome rationalism. It certainly is not his
aim to do some kind of reverse zwabydah and turn empiricism into
rationalism. Dave would paint James as a rationalist in empirical clothing.
But I am saying that he is just adding to the British empiricists not
throwing them out. 

I think you would find at least the two chapters on concepts and percepts in
Some Problems of Philosophy very helpful.

http://www.questia.com/PM.qst?a=o&d=1051665 


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