Doesn't 1) rest on the assumption that there is a "real" self to 
experience "free will"?  Few would deny that there is a sense 
of self, but is that sense of self based on anything "real"?




On Jul 7, 2011, at 2:32 AM, [email protected] wrote:

> I see 3 issues:
> 1) Is there a real (as opposed to illusionary) experience that we call "free 
> will"?
> 2) If so, is 'free will' a good term to describe this experience?
> 3) Also if so, is the traditional explanation or an explanation in MoQ terms 
> better?
> 
> 1) [Pirsig]
>> Free Will is the philosophic doctrine that man makes choices independent of 
>> the atoms of his
>> body. 
> 
> I think what Pirsig means is that the Doctrine of Free Will (as opposed to 
> Determinism)
> "is the philosophic doctrine that man makes choices independent of the atoms 
> of his body".
> So the Doctrine of Free Will or Determinism is true or false.
> But the exercise/experience of free will need not be "independent of the 
> atoms of his body"
> (how could it be?).
> An atom in one's body/brain has no memory & no beliefs about of the 
> consequences of
> human action.  As such an atom cannot make the kind of choice that is 
> relevant to free will.
> But that does not mean that such an atom is irrelevant to free will.  It only 
> means that
> something more than that atom is required.
> 
> 2) [Steve]
>> free will is a meaningless term in the MOQ.
> 
> But how can the term be meaningless if it refers to a real experience?
> 
> 3) is the issue we should work on. 
> Craig 
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