Dear John, List,

as I see it, semiotics is logic in the broad sense (comprising spec. gr.,
critical logic, and methodeutic), and its place in the classification of
the sciences is the place of logic. The fact in Peirce's schemes of
classification of the sciences there never appears semiotics, is an
indication that it is simply identical with logic (and, I tend to think,
especially with the first branch of logic, spec. gr.)

That a thinker can spend so much time and ink talking about signs, their
functioning and their varieties, and yet fail to find a place for the
science of signs in his classification of the sciences seems to be
unbelivable. Therefore, I take seriously his claim that "logic is
semiotics" and use "semiotics" as equivalent to "logic" (in the broad
sense). If this identification is made, every problem about semiotics'
collocation in the scheme disappears

Best
Francesco

On Mon, Sep 10, 2018 at 1:17 AM, John F Sowa <[email protected]> wrote:

> In his 1903 classification of the sciences (CP 1.180-202)
> Peirce classified formal logic under mathematics, but he also
> classified logic as a normative science.
>
> Question:  Where is semeiotic?
>
> As a formal theory, it would be classified with formal logic
> under mathematics.  But semeiotic is also an applied science when
> it is used in perception, action, communication...
>
> When I drew a diagram to illustrate Peirce's classification,
> I did not include semeiotic because he had not mentioned it.
> But since it is a science, it belongs somewhere in that diagram.
> Where?
>
> I believe that it belongs directly under phenomenology, since every
> perception involves signs.  See the attached CSPsemiotic.jpg.
>
> Does anyone have any comments?
>
> John
>
>
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