Jon, List,

I've changed the subject line to reflect a change in emphasis. You wrote:

JAS: I have said several times now that one of the ways in which my
speculative grammar deviates from Peirce's is by rejecting qualisigns, and
I have given my primary reason for this each time--a quality *in itself* cannot
represent something else, it can only present itself; and therefore, a
quality *in itself *cannot be a sign.  So far no one has actually
*argued *against
this position or offered any example of a quality that is a sign *in itself*,
rather than a tone that inheres in a token.

I recalled reading a while back this proposed example of a quality capable
of signifying, that is, a quality in itself acting as a sign.

Examples of signs whose sign-vehicle relies upon a quality are difficult to
imagine, but a particularly clear example, used by David Savan, is this:

[…] I use a color chip to identify the color of some paint I want to buy.
The color chip is perhaps made of cardboard, rectangular, resting on a
wooden table etc., etc. But it is only the color of the chip that is
essential to it as a sign of the color of the paint. (Savan 1988, 20)

There are many elements to the colored chip as a sign, but it is only its
color that matters to its ability to signify. Any sign whose sign-vehicle
relies, as with this example, on simple abstracted qualities is called a
qualisign. "Peirce's Theory of Signs" (Albert Atkin) in Stanford
Encyclopedia of Philosophy
https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/peirce-semiotics/

What do you think?Best,Gary

"Time is not a renewable resource." gnox

*Gary Richmond*
*Philosophy and Critical Thinking*
*Communication Studies*
*LaGuardia College of the City University of New York*







On Sun, May 3, 2020 at 9:21 PM Jon Alan Schmidt <[email protected]>
wrote:

> John, List:
>
> I seem to recall a recent on-List assertion that "Peirce would cringe at
> most, if not all attempts to paraphrase his thoughts."  That is exactly
> what the first sentence below constitutes, unless it can be supported by a
> direct quotation from Peirce in which he explicitly states that a theory
> being "fallible" does not mean that we are "free to make adjustments" to it.
>
> I seem to recall another recent on-List assertion that Peirce "would be
> horrified at the thought that anybody would attempt to pick and choose some
> rigid set of quotations as a definitive formulation of his thought."
> Besides being another (presumably cringe-worthy) attempt to paraphrase his
> thoughts, this statement apparently prohibits us from taking his writings
> about semeiotic (or anything else) as a definitive formulation of his
> theory.
>
> In any case, Kuhn's concept of "normal science" is by no means limited to
> finding new applications of an established theory.  If every theory is
> fallible, then every theory is susceptible of further theoretical
> adjustments, which need not overturn the *entire *theory.  In other
> words, there is a huge difference between proposing changes to some of the 
> *details
> *of the theory--which is all that I am doing--and advocating a
> fundamental paradigm shift.
>
> I have said several times now that one of the ways in which my speculative
> grammar deviates from Peirce's is by rejecting qualisigns, and I have given
> my primary reason for this each time--a quality *in itself* cannot
> represent something else, it can only present itself; and therefore, a
> quality *in itself *cannot be a sign.  So far no one has actually *argued
> *against this position or offered any example of a quality that is a sign *in
> itself*, rather than a tone that inheres in a token.
>
> Regards,
>
> Jon Alan Schmidt - Olathe, Kansas, USA
> Professional Engineer, Amateur Philosopher, Lutheran Layman
> www.LinkedIn.com/in/JonAlanSchmidt - twitter.com/JonAlanSchmidt
>
>
>>
>>
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