Remember that the definition of u/ was:
"u/y applies the dyad u between the items of y".
The items of i.1 are {.i.1
And:
({.i.1) -: +/i.1
1
Does that make sense? (And, yes, I intentionally mangled english
grammar in my third sentence of this message.)
Thanks,
--
Raul
On Thu, Sep 11, 2014 at 7:18 PM, Jose Mario Quintana
<jose.mario.quint...@gmail.com> wrote:
> Now, that is interesting. Thus, it seems, the unofficial documentation
> about / is not quite correct (depending on what the meaning of "is" is.).
>
> I have another question: if "u is applied (#y)-1 times." How come,
>
> (-: u^:0)i.1
> 1
>
> ?
>
>
>
> On Thu, Sep 11, 2014 at 6:36 PM, Raul Miller <rauldmil...@gmail.com> wrote:
>
>> y always remains unchanged. Note also that the result is distinct from y:
>>
>> (-: +/) i.1
>> 0
>>
>> Thanks,
>>
>> --
>> Raul
>>
>> On Thu, Sep 11, 2014 at 3:13 PM, Jose Mario Quintana
>> <jose.mario.quint...@gmail.com> wrote:
>> > My only guess is:
>> > "m/y inserts successive verbs from the gerund m between items of y"
>> >
>> > So, if there is no "between items of y" inserts nothing and y remains
>> > unchanged; but, it seems to me that the Dictionary could be more
>> assertive
>> > in this instance.
>> >
>> >
>> > On Thu, Sep 11, 2014 at 2:13 PM, Dan Bron <j...@bron.us> wrote:
>> >
>> >> Pepe wrote:
>> >> > My only question is: Does the Dictionary support this behavior?
>> >>
>> >> > Raul responded:
>> >> > Yes, it does.
>> >>
>> >> I replied:
>> >> > I am intrigued. Can you elaborate?
>> >>
>> >> Thomas followed-up:
>> >> > I assumed that by not mentioning it, the implementation
>> >> > is free to do what it chooses. It could be anything!
>> >>
>> >> That's what I think too. The behavior is, in the strictest literal
>> sense,
>> >> undefined. But Raul differs. I'm interested in his rationale (which,
>> >> historically, has been both solid and instructive).
>> >>
>> >> -Dan
>> >>
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