Re: The scope of physical law and its relationship to the substitution level

2015-05-25 Thread Jason Resch
I don't think Newtonian physics is intuitive. Most people's intuition and
experiences would not lead them to the idea that once set in motion an
object continues to move forever, nor that the the total direction of
matter is conserved. Even Descartes missed this.

Jason

On Sun, May 24, 2015 at 8:27 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 5/24/2015 5:05 AM, Pierz wrote:



 On Sunday, May 24, 2015 at 4:02:42 PM UTC+10, Brent wrote:

  On 5/23/2015 9:58 PM, Pierz wrote:



 On Saturday, May 23, 2015 at 8:36:40 PM UTC+10, Liz R wrote:

  I'm not sure why comp would predict that physical laws are invariant
 for all observers. I can see that it would lead to a sort of
 super-anthropic-selection effect, but surely all possible observers should
 exist somewhere in arithmetic, including ones who observe different physics
 (that is compatible with their existence) ?


  I really must dig up the old thread! But I'm not saying comp does
 entail invariant physics for all observers, just that if there are
 different physics, the substitution level must be very low indeed. Think of
 the original scenario in the UDA: a person in Washington is suddenly
 annihilated, and then duplicated in Helsinki and Moscow (or whatever). That
 operation creates a 50% probability of finding oneself in Helsinki or
 Moscow. But the ultimate point of the UDA is that one's actual probability
 of finding oneself in Helsinki or Washington depends on the total measure
 of *all* virtual environments within which that observer is instantiated
 in an environment that looks like one of those cities. One can't isolate a
 particular virtual system from the trace of the UD. So you can't create an
 arbitrary physics in an environment that looks like either city (or
 anywhere). Well you can, but any observer will always find their own
 physics to be the measure of *all* their continuations in arithmetic. So
 there can't be an environment that is like Helsinki or Moscow at some point
 but that has different physical laws. Carry this logic over to the scenario
 of a person standing in an empty room - the physics the person experiences
 will be the measure of all such identical persons standing in empty rooms.


 Experiencing physics I think needs some explication.  If experiencing
 only refers to consciously thinking propositions, then one may not be
 experiencing much physics: the world seems 3D with colors, there's a mild
 temperature, air smells OK,...  One doesn't directly, consciously
 experience the 2nd law, or the Born rule.  The laws of physics are human
 inventions to describe and predict events.  They're not out there in
 Nature; which is why we have to revise them from time to time as we find
 more comprehensive, more accurate laws.

  OK, but it doesn't seem relevant to the argument. We experience a world
 predictable and stable in certain ways that, now we're so sophisticated, we
 formalise into the science of physics. Bruno's claim is that these
 regularities are not intrinsic properties of some primary stuff, but
 emergent from the computational properties of observers - namely how often
 various continuations of those observers crop up relatively to one another
 in the abstract space of all possible continuations. I'm trying to make an
 admittedly difficult point about whether or not observers in different
 places can experience different physics within this paradigm, and if so,
 how that relates to substitution level. If you're worried about people
 experiencing physics let's just concentrate on observers who go to the
 trouble of doing physics experiments. It really doesn't matter.


 My point was that most people's conscious experience most of the time
 could be accommodated within a large range of physics.  For example
 Newtonian physics seems intuitive while quantum mechanics isn't; but we
 think QM is the better theory.  But Bruno claims that his theory implies QM
 and not Newtonian mechanics. So if people consciously experienced a
 Newtonian universe (which they once thought they did) would that falsify
 comp or would it just imply that the UD can instantiate Newtonian universes.

 Brent




   The question here is what constitutes the observer? How detailed would
 a simulation of me have to be before it became a subjective *duplicate* of
 me, its continuations my continuations? If there is a person A somewhere in
 the UD who is experiencing an empty room with physics A, and another
 identically configured person B somewhere else experiencing physics B, what
 is stopping the continuations of A mixing with the continuations of B, so
 that the measures combine into a merged physics? There has to be something
 in both observers' computational states that distinguishes them
 sufficiently that their experiences cannot interfere with one another - the
 comp equivalent of decoherence. (In fact if QM effects are the
 manifestation of UD observer measures, the threshold at which these effects
 start to kick in should probably give 

Re: The scope of physical law and its relationship to the substitution level

2015-05-25 Thread meekerdb
Most people find it more intuitive than QM.  But OK, consider people who experience 
Aristotelian physics.


Brent

On 5/24/2015 11:12 PM, Jason Resch wrote:
I don't think Newtonian physics is intuitive. Most people's intuition and experiences 
would not lead them to the idea that once set in motion an object continues to move 
forever, nor that the the total direction of matter is conserved. Even Descartes missed 
this.


Jason

On Sun, May 24, 2015 at 8:27 PM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net 
mailto:meeke...@verizon.net wrote:


On 5/24/2015 5:05 AM, Pierz wrote:



On Sunday, May 24, 2015 at 4:02:42 PM UTC+10, Brent wrote:

On 5/23/2015 9:58 PM, Pierz wrote:



On Saturday, May 23, 2015 at 8:36:40 PM UTC+10, Liz R wrote:

I'm not sure why comp would predict that physical laws are 
invariant for
all observers. I can see that it would lead to a sort of
super-anthropic-selection effect, but surely all possible observers 
should
exist somewhere in arithmetic, including ones who observe different
physics (that is compatible with their existence) ?


I really must dig up the old thread! But I'm not saying comp does entail
invariant physics for all observers, just that if there are different 
physics,
the substitution level must be very low indeed. Think of the original 
scenario
in the UDA: a person in Washington is suddenly annihilated, and then
duplicated in Helsinki and Moscow (or whatever). That operation creates 
a 50%
probability of finding oneself in Helsinki or Moscow. But the ultimate 
point
of the UDA is that one's actual probability of finding oneself in 
Helsinki or
Washington depends on the total measure of /all/ virtual environments 
within
which that observer is instantiated in an environment that looks like 
one of
those cities. One can't isolate a particular virtual system from the 
trace of
the UD. So you can't create an arbitrary physics in an environment that 
looks
like either city (or anywhere). Well you can, but any observer will 
always
find their own physics to be the measure of *all* their continuations in
arithmetic. So there can't be an environment that is like Helsinki or 
Moscow
at some point but that has different physical laws. Carry this logic 
over to
the scenario of a person standing in an empty room - the physics the 
person
experiences will be the measure of all such identical persons standing 
in
empty rooms.


Experiencing physics I think needs some explication.  If experiencing 
only
refers to consciously thinking propositions, then one may not be 
experiencing
much physics: the world seems 3D with colors, there's a mild 
temperature, air
smells OK,...  One doesn't directly, consciously experience the 2nd 
law, or the
Born rule.  The laws of physics are human inventions to describe and 
predict
events. They're not out there in Nature; which is why we have to revise 
them
from time to time as we find more comprehensive, more accurate laws.

OK, but it doesn't seem relevant to the argument. We experience a world 
predictable
and stable in certain ways that, now we're so sophisticated, we formalise 
into the
science of physics. Bruno's claim is that these regularities are not 
intrinsic
properties of some primary stuff, but emergent from the computational 
properties of
observers - namely how often various continuations of those observers crop 
up
relatively to one another in the abstract space of all possible 
continuations. I'm
trying to make an admittedly difficult point about whether or not observers 
in
different places can experience different physics within this paradigm, and 
if so,
how that relates to substitution level. If you're worried about people
experiencing physics let's just concentrate on observers who go to the 
trouble of
doing physics experiments. It really doesn't matter.


My point was that most people's conscious experience most of the time could 
be
accommodated within a large range of physics.  For example Newtonian 
physics seems
intuitive while quantum mechanics isn't; but we think QM is the better 
theory.  But
Bruno claims that his theory implies QM and not Newtonian mechanics. So if 
people
consciously experienced a Newtonian universe (which they once thought they 
did)
would that falsify comp or would it just imply that the UD can instantiate 
Newtonian
universes.

Brent



The question here is what constitutes the observer? How detailed would a
simulation of me have to be before it became a subjective /duplicate/ 
of me,
its continuations my continuations? If there is a person A somewhere in 
the UD
who is experiencing an empty room with physics A, and 

Re: Michael Shermer becomes sceptical about scepticism!

2015-05-25 Thread meekerdb

On 5/24/2015 5:34 AM, Pierz wrote:



On Monday, May 4, 2015 at 9:08:30 PM UTC+10, spudb...@aol.com wrote:

I sure did, Telmo. Scroll to the bottom and you shall view my last, number 
26th, the
last one. This kind of thing is interesting to me. I tend toward the 
materialist
stuff since it seems to have potential. The mentalist stuff seems 
unreliable because
people who have NDE's or trances have not come back with information. 



? Highly debatable! It's true that so far I'm not aware of any experiments in which NDE 
subjects reported the content of cards put in places only visible from the ceiling (as 
some researchers have tried), but plenty of information has come back if you're 
willing to allow experiencers' spontaneous reports as evidence. For instance, the well 
documented case of a woman who was able to report accurately on the neurosurgery that 
was performed on her, including describing surgical tools, conversations and detail 
about procedures she could have had no knowledge of - all while her body was drained of 
blood, with a flatlining EEG. There are tons of such reports,


And tons of them have been found to be confabulated and exaggerated, based on later 
memories and second hand reports..


Brent

and studies have looked at the accuracy of these reports and found that they far 
exceeded the accuracy of surgery descriptions of patients asked to describe that they 
*thought* they would have seen if witnessing their own surgery. Yes of course this does 
not constitute any kind of scientific proof, but to sweepingly say they have not come 
back with information is also inaccurate. What you /can/ say is attempts to find some 
kind of information that NDE-ers can report in a reliable, replicable manner have so far 
been unsuccessful.





-Original Message-
From: Telmo Menezes te...@telmomenezes.com javascript:
To: everything-list everyth...@googlegroups.com javascript:
Sent: Mon, May 4, 2015 4:19 am
Subject: Re: Michael Shermer becomes sceptical about scepticism!



On Sun, May 3, 2015 at 9:19 PM, spudboy100 via Everything List
everyth...@googlegroups.com javascript: wrote:

Hi Telmo,

I have tried the Other Side stuff for a bit, and found it wanting.


Not so surprising... The topic is a string attractor for quacks, for sure.

Steinhart, said he had some experiences but decided they were not that
significant to himself. He is more buzzed, he said, but the beauty of
mathematics, emotionally. Here is a crowd funded 3D augmented reality 
game, due
out next year, called Night Terrors, so much for the paranormal, yes? 
We maybe,
could, have the paranormal adventure any time we choose.


http://www.ign.com/articles/2015/05/01/survival-horror-augmented-reality-game-night-terrors-maps-your-house

http://www.ign.com/articles/2015/05/01/survival-horror-augmented-reality-game-night-terrors-maps-your-house



Wow, this is a brilliant/terrifying idea!



I cross-posted a message to Ben Goetzel on his Multiverse website, as 
well as
on Guilio Prisco's Turing-Church website sight concerning Goetzel's
non-response, to my question to him, about afterlife ideas, if any?  He 
seemed
to touch on this in a recent article, as well as his 2006, The Hidden 
Pattern,
which I had downloaded, a couple of months ago. Any data or opinion on 
Goetzel's
view on all this?


Have you seen this?

http://multiverseaccordingtoben.blogspot.de/2015/03/paranormal-phenomena-nonlocal-mind-and.html

http://multiverseaccordingtoben.blogspot.de/2015/03/paranormal-phenomena-nonlocal-mind-and.html


Telmo.


Mitch


-Original Message-
From: Telmo Menezes te...@telmomenezes.com javascript:
To: everything-list everyth...@googlegroups.com javascript:
Sent: Sun, May 3, 2015 2:45 pm
Subject: Re: Michael Shermer becomes sceptical about scepticism!

Hi spudboy,

I follow Ben Goetzel and have some of the books he recommends on the 
topic on my
to-read list.

I remain agnostic on this stuff, and just try to consider the simplest
explanation, even if it's boring. In the case of this story, this 
sounds a lot
like the event was staged by some nice person who cares about the 
bride. This
doesn't mean that is the correct explanation, of course.

What I am more curious about are replicable laboratory experiments. 
Some people,
like Goetzel, are claiming that results with statistical significance 
are known.
Maybe this is a nice opportunity for amateur science, because dealing 
with this
topics would still career suicide for many people -- even if to find 
negative
results.

Of course believing in the supernatural is absurd -- what does that 
even mean?
If, for example, ghosts were real, then 

Re: What does the MGA accomplish?

2015-05-25 Thread Bruce Kellett

Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 18 May 2015, at 02:31, Bruce Kellett wrote:


LizR wrote:
On 17 May 2015 at 11:44, Bruce Kellett 
bhkell...@optusnet.com.au I can see that computationalism 
might well have difficulties

   accommodating a gradual evolutionary understanding of almost
   anything -- after all, the dovetailer is there in Platonia
   before anything physical ever appears. So how can consciousness
   evolve gradually?
This is the tired old misunderstanding of the concept of a block 
universe. It's as though Minkowski never existed.


OK. Explain to me exactly how the block universe ideas work out in 
Platonia.


I thought I saw an answer by Liz, but don't find it.


No, Liz only snipes from the sidelines.she does not answer 
substantive questions.


I am not sure that the block physical universe ideas work out in 
Platonia, although block physical multiverse appearance might be 
explainable by the rather canonical all computations, which is offered 
once we agree that 2+2 = 4, or any theorem of RA, is true independently 
of him/her/it.


The block multiverse could well be a different concept from the block 
universe of the Minkowskian understanding of special relativity.


The question arose in a discussion of the possibility of an evolutionary 
understanding of consciousness. This does not, on the face of it, appear 
to sit terribly easily in comp, since comp starts from the individual 
conscious moment or moments, and seeks to understand physics as somehow 
emergent from the statistics of all such instantiations of this set of 
computations in the UD. This does not appear to relate easily to an 
account of times before and after the existence of that particular 
consciousness.


Part of my problem is that the UD does not execute any actual program 
sequentially: after each step in a program it executes the next step of 
the next program and so on, until it reaches the first step of some 
program, at which point it loops back to the start. So if the conscious 
moment is evinced by a logical sequence of steps by the dovetailer, it 
does not correspond to any particular program, but a rather arbitrary 
assortment of steps from many programs. Of course, given that all 
programs are executed, this sequence of steps does correspond to some 
program, somewhere, but not necessarily any of the ones partially 
executed for generating that conscious moment.


There is also a question as to whether this sequence of computational 
steps generates one conscious moment -- of some shorter or longer 
duration (duration being in experienced time, since the computations are 
timeless) -- or whether a whole conscious life is generated by a 
continuous sequence of steps, or whether the whole history of the world 
that contains that consciousness (and all other conscious beings, past, 
present, and future) are generated by the same (extraordinarily long) 
continuous sequence of computational steps.


If the idea is something along the lines of the latter possibility, then 
the block universe might well be the result. The problem then, of 
course, is that any particular consciousness will be generated an 
indefinitely great number of separate times for each time this whole 
universe is generated. This, of course, is the Boltzmann brain problem, 
and I do not think you have adequately addressed this.


Of course, it is a poisonous gift, as it leads to the necessary search, 
for the computationalist, of a measure on the border of the sigma_1 
reality.


It is long to explain, but you might appreciate shortcuts, as the 
sigma_1 arithmetical reality emulates all rational approximations of 
physical equations, and so, abstracting from the (comp) measure problem 
temporarily, you can make sense of relative local block universe in that 
reality, as that part of the arithmetical reality mimics the physicists 
block universe or universes (perhaps only locally too).


Generating all rational approximations of physical equations is not 
going to get you a block universe -- or any sort of universe, for that 
matter. The equations of physics describe the behaviour of the physical 
world, they are not that physical world -- map and territory again.



Of course such shortcuts might not have the right measure, and so we 
need to use a vaster net.


My point is that if our brains or bodies are Turing emulable then they 
are Turing emulated in a small part of the arithmetical reality. The 
first person points of view gives an internal perspective which is much 
complex, in fact of unboundable complexity, but with important 
invariants too.


In the technic parts I exploit important relations between the sigma_1 
truth, the sigma_1 provable and the (with CT) intuitively computable.


I can explain, if you want, but my feeling is that you don't like the 
idea (that the aristotelian materialist dogma can be doubted), nor does 
it seems you are ready to involve in more of computer science.


But if you don't study 

Re: The scope of physical law and its relationship to the substitution level

2015-05-25 Thread Pierz


On Monday, May 25, 2015 at 4:10:37 AM UTC+10, Bruno Marchal wrote:


 On 23 May 2015, at 12:36, LizR wrote:

 I'm not sure why comp would predict that physical laws are invariant for 
 all observers


 I can see that it would lead to a sort of super-anthropic-selection 
 effect, but surely all possible observers should exist somewhere in 
 arithmetic, including ones who observe different physics (that is 
 compatible with their existence) ?


 Those with different physics will have measure zero. Why? Because the laws 
 of physics must be given by the sum on all computations below the 
 substitution level, whatever any universal machine state can be in. Only 
 geography will need the anthropic element, the physics needs only a 
 mathematical statistics on all computation, going in actual state which 
 are any state.

 Physics become a theorem of machine theology, itself a theorem of 
 arithmetic (+ comp). 

 Of course, today, we don't know how much the standard model is 
 contingent or absolute. String theory diminish a large part of the 
 contingent parts, but introduces complexity in other direction, with 
 panorama of different sorts of physics. All this are open problem in comp.
 The goal of comp is to provide an explanation of the relation between 
 consciousness/mind and appearance of matter and persistence, and this in 
 some testable way. It is an explanation in the form of the formulation of a 
 problem, or a reduction of a problem into another one. 

 Bruno


OK the 'invariant physics' you refer to is a very low-level one, i.e., the 
ultimate unifying laws. However, let me try to put my point about the 
substitution level another way to make it clearer. ISTM that it will be 
sufficient for there to be another region of the multiverse where the 
observable, everyday physics (things like particle masses etc) are 
different in order to force us to conclude that the substitution level must 
be as large as the observer's universe. Why? Because let's say there is an 
observer in another region of the multiverse whom I wish to duplicate here 
in *this* region, where the observable laws are different. I get a copy of 
that observer's memories etc and reproduce them here. Now suddenly that 
observer has a continuation that experiences the physics of *this* region. 
But if that was possible, then the physics of both regions would have 
merged, because observers in both regions would already be able to 
interfere with one another's measures. SO, in order to prevent such 
interference of measures and a merging of physics into an average measure, 
it must be that in order to duplicate an observer in another region, I need 
to duplicate the observer to such a deep level that the separation into the 
two regions is as it were enforced by the very definition of that observer. 
The observer must include the entire computational branch down to the point 
at which the two physics diverged.
 







 On 23 May 2015 at 21:23, Pierz pie...@gmail.com javascript: wrote:

 Some time ago on this list I had a fascinating exchange with Bruno that 
 has stayed with me, fuelling some attacks of 4am philosophical insomnia - 
 an affliction I imagine I'm not the only person on this list to suffer 
 from! If you try to nail Bruno down on some aspects of his theory, he has a 
 tendency to get all Sg Grz* and p[]p on you at a certain point, making it 
 difficult to progress without a PhD in modal logic - despite the fact that 
 I suspect that the ideas are fundamentally simple. Nevertheless in the 
 course of the discussion, Bruno *did* acknowledge that his theory 
 predicts that the laws of physics are invariant across space and time, 
 because they are supposed to arise out of pure arithmetic (being the 
 hypostases of the FPI bla blas).  Indeed, for the dissolution of the 
 material within the arithmetical to go through (logically), then the 
 regularities that we call physical law cannot depend on geography, since *ex 
 hypothesi* they arise from number relations which are prior to time and 
 space. Yet physics - or cosmology - seems to be headed full-steam in a 
 different direction, towards the conclusion that physical law is indeed 
 dependent on geography, the laws we observe being dependent upon an 
 observer selection process. That is, we see physical laws finely honed for 
 life, because life can only exist in those regions where the laws are 
 conducive to life. I'm less sure about this, but I think it might still be 
 OK for physical law to geographically determined in this sense, so long as 
 there are no other observers in different parts of the multiverse who see 
 different laws, but to assume such a thing seems foolish. Why should we 
 believe that of all the possible permutations of the parameters which 
 determined physical, there is only a single solution which permits life? 
 There might be many different 

 So on the face of it, the recent measurements of the mass of the Higgs 
 boson, which are strongly 

Re: Reconciling Random Neuron Firings and Fading Qualia

2015-05-25 Thread Pierz


On Monday, May 25, 2015 at 4:58:53 AM UTC+10, Brent wrote:

  On 5/24/2015 4:09 AM, Pierz wrote:
  


 On Sunday, May 24, 2015 at 4:47:12 PM UTC+10, Jason wrote: 



 On Sun, May 24, 2015 at 12:40 AM, Pierz pie...@gmail.com wrote:



 On Sunday, May 24, 2015 at 1:07:15 AM UTC+10, Jason wrote: 



 On Tue, May 19, 2015 at 12:44 PM, Bruno Marchal mar...@ulb.ac.be 
 wrote:
  

   On 19 May 2015, at 15:53, Jason Resch wrote:

  

 On Tue, May 19, 2015 at 12:06 AM, Stathis Papaioannou 
 stat...@gmail.com wrote:

  On 19 May 2015 at 14:45, Jason Resch jason...@gmail.com wrote:
 
 
  On Mon, May 18, 2015 at 9:21 PM, Stathis Papaioannou 
 stat...@gmail.com
  wrote: 

 
  On 19 May 2015 at 11:02, Jason Resch jason...@gmail.com wrote:
 
   I think you're not taking into account the level of the 
 functional
   substitution. Of course functionally equivalent silicon and 
 functionally
   equivalent neurons can (under functionalism) both instantiate 
 the same
   consciousness. But a calculator computing 2+3 cannot substitute 
 for a
   human
   brain computing 2+3 and produce the same consciousness.
 
  In a gradual replacement the substitution must obviously be at a 
 level
  sufficient to maintain the function of the whole brain. Sticking a
  calculator in it won't work.
 
   Do you think a Blockhead that was functionally equivalent to 
 you (it
   could
   fool all your friends and family in a Turing test scenario into 
 thinking
   it
   was intact you) would be conscious in the same way as you?
 
  Not necessarily, just as an actor may not be conscious in the same 
 way
  as me. But I suspect the Blockhead would be conscious; the 
 intuition
  that a lookup table can't be conscious is like the intuition that 
 an
  electric circuit can't be conscious.
 
 
  I don't see an equivalency between those intuitions. A lookup table 
 has a
  bounded and very low degree of computational complexity: all 
 answers to all
  queries are answered in constant time.
 
  While the table itself may have an arbitrarily high information 
 content,
  what in the software of the lookup table program is there to
  appreciate/understand/know that information?

Understanding emerges from the fact that the lookup table is 
 immensely
 large. It could be wrong, but I don't think it is obviously less
 plausible than understanding emerging from a Turing machine made of
 tin cans.
  

 
  The lookup table is intelligent or at least offers the appearance of 
 intelligence, but it makes the maximum possible advantage of the 
 space-time 
 trade off: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Space–time_tradeoff

  The tin-can Turing machine is unbounded in its potential 
 computational complexity, there's no reason to be a bio- or 
 silico-chauvinist against it. However, by definition, a lookup table has 
 near zero computational complexity, no retained state. 


But it is counterfactually correct on a large range spectrum. Of 
 course, it has to be infinite to be genuinely counterfactual-correct. 
  
 
  But the structure of the counterfactuals is identical regardless of 
 the inputs and outputs in its lookup table. If you replaced all of its 
 outputs with random strings, would that change its consciousness? What if 
 there existed a special decoding book, which was a one-time-pad that could 
 decode its random answers? Would the existence of this book make it more 
 conscious than if this book did not exist? If there is zero information 
 content in the outputs returned by the lookup table it might as well 
 return 
 all X characters as its response to any query, but then would any 
 program 
 that just returns a string of X's be conscious?

 I really like this argument, even though I once came up with a 
 (bad) attempt to refute it. I wish it received more attention because it 
 does cast quite a penetrating light on the issue. What you're suggesting is 
 effectively the cache pattern in computer programming, where we trade 
 memory resources for computational resources. Instead of repeating a 
 resource-intensive computation, we store the inputs and outputs for later 
 regurgitation. 
  

  How is this different from a movie recording of brain activity (which 
 most on the list seem to agree is not conscious)? The lookup table is just 
 a really long recording, only we use the input to determine to which 
 section of the recording to fast-forward/rewind to.

It isn't different to a recording. But here's the thing: when we ask 
 if the lookup machine is conscious, we are kind of implicitly asking: is it 
 having an experience *now*, while I ask the question and see a response. 
 But what does such a question actually even mean? If a computation is 
 underway in time when the machine responds, then I assume it is having a 
 co-temporal experience. But the lookup machine idea forces us to the 
 realization that different observers' subjective experiences (the pure 
 qualia) can't be mapped to one another in objective time. 

Re: The scope of physical law and its relationship to the substitution level

2015-05-25 Thread Bruce Kellett

Pierz wrote:

On Monday, May 25, 2015 at 4:10:37 AM UTC+10, Bruno Marchal wrote:
On 23 May 2015, at 12:36, LizR wrote:


I'm not sure why comp would predict that physical laws are
invariant for all observers



I can see that it would lead to a sort of
super-anthropic-selection effect, but surely all possible
observers should exist somewhere in arithmetic, including ones who
observe different physics (that is compatible with their existence) ?


Those with different physics will have measure zero. Why? Because
the laws of physics must be given by the sum on all computations
below the substitution level, whatever any universal machine state
can be in. Only geography will need the anthropic element, the
physics needs only a mathematical statistics on all computation,
going in actual state which are any state.

Physics become a theorem of machine theology, itself a theorem of
arithmetic (+ comp). 


Of course, today, we don't know how much the standard model is
contingent or absolute. String theory diminish a large part of the
contingent parts, but introduces complexity in other direction, with
panorama of different sorts of physics. All this are open problem in
comp.
The goal of comp is to provide an explanation of the relation
between consciousness/mind and appearance of matter and persistence,
and this in some testable way. It is an explanation in the form of
the formulation of a problem, or a reduction of a problem into
another one. 


Bruno

OK the 'invariant physics' you refer to is a very low-level one, i.e., 
the ultimate unifying laws. However, let me try to put my point about 
the substitution level another way to make it clearer. ISTM that it will 
be sufficient for there to be another region of the multiverse where the 
observable, everyday physics (things like particle masses etc) are 
different in order to force us to conclude that the substitution level 
must be as large as the observer's universe. Why? Because let's say 
there is an observer in another region of the multiverse whom I wish to 
duplicate here in *this* region, where the observable laws are 
different. I get a copy of that observer's memories etc and reproduce 
them here. Now suddenly that observer has a continuation that 
experiences the physics of *this* region. But if that was possible, then 
the physics of both regions would have merged, because observers in both 
regions would already be able to interfere with one another's measures. 
SO, in order to prevent such interference of measures and a merging of 
physics into an average measure, it must be that in order to duplicate 
an observer in another region, I need to duplicate the observer to such 
a deep level that the separation into the two regions is as it were 
enforced by the very definition of that observer. The observer must 
include the entire computational branch down to the point at which the 
two physics diverged.


I think you are largely right here. There is not even any reason to 
suppose that there is an 'invariant physics', even at the lowest of 
levels. If string theory is any guide, then laws such as 
electromagnetism, gravity, the weak and strong nuclear forces, and so 
on, depend on the topological windings of the Calabi-Yau manifolds that 
govern the compactification of the unobserved extra dimensions. Even the 
number of space-time dimensions might vary between these possibilities. 
With even slight modifications of the configurations that obtain in our 
universe, the physics would be very different, and there might well not 
be any 'invariant laws' at all.


So I think you are probably right -- the substitution level must include 
the whole of the level I multiverse (the multiverse over which the same 
laws as we observe obtain). This, at least, will give a block universe 
from which sensible space and time parameters could be extracted. But 
how this is related to the comp summation over multiple instances of an 
individual's conscious moments escapes me completely.


Bruce

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Re: What does the MGA accomplish?

2015-05-25 Thread Pierz


On Saturday, May 9, 2015 at 8:24:51 AM UTC+10, Russell Standish wrote:

 On Fri, May 08, 2015 at 08:47:22AM +0200, Bruno Marchal wrote: 
  
  
  It is only a new recent fashion on this list to take seriously that 
  a recording can be conscious, because for a logician, that error is 
  the (common) confusion between the finger and the moon, or between 
  2+2=4 and 2+2=4. 
  

 It is only recently that we began seriously discussing the MGA at all 
 (about the last 3 years). 

 Why do you say conscious recording (playbacks) are the same as the 
 confusion 
 between 2+2=4 and 2+2=4? I don't even know what you mean by 
 confusion between the finger and the moon... 

 I don't know where that originally comes from, but most trippers know it! 
:) The finger that points to the moon is not the moon itself. The 
representation is not the thing. 
 

 Cheers 
 -- 

  

 Prof Russell Standish  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile) 
 Principal, High Performance Coders 
 Visiting Professor of Mathematics  hpc...@hpcoders.com.au 
 javascript: 
 University of New South Wales  http://www.hpcoders.com.au 
  



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Re: The scope of physical law and its relationship to the substitution level

2015-05-25 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 25 May 2015, at 13:53, Pierz wrote:




On Monday, May 25, 2015 at 4:10:37 AM UTC+10, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 23 May 2015, at 12:36, LizR wrote:

I'm not sure why comp would predict that physical laws are  
invariant for all observers


I can see that it would lead to a sort of super-anthropic-selection  
effect, but surely all possible observers should exist somewhere in  
arithmetic, including ones who observe different physics (that is  
compatible with their existence) ?


Those with different physics will have measure zero. Why? Because  
the laws of physics must be given by the sum on all computations  
below the substitution level, whatever any universal machine state  
can be in. Only geography will need the anthropic element, the  
physics needs only a mathematical statistics on all computation,  
going in actual state which are any state.


Physics become a theorem of machine theology, itself a theorem of  
arithmetic (+ comp).


Of course, today, we don't know how much the standard model is  
contingent or absolute. String theory diminish a large part of the  
contingent parts, but introduces complexity in other direction, with  
panorama of different sorts of physics. All this are open problem in  
comp.
The goal of comp is to provide an explanation of the relation  
between consciousness/mind and appearance of matter and persistence,  
and this in some testable way. It is an explanation in the form of  
the formulation of a problem, or a reduction of a problem into  
another one.


Bruno

OK the 'invariant physics' you refer to is a very low-level one,  
i.e., the ultimate unifying laws. However, let me try to put my  
point about the substitution level another way to make it clearer.  
ISTM that it will be sufficient for there to be another region of  
the multiverse where the observable, everyday physics (things like  
particle masses etc) are different in order to force us to conclude  
that the substitution level must be as large as the observer's  
universe. Why? Because let's say there is an observer in another  
region of the multiverse whom I wish to duplicate here in *this*  
region, where the observable laws are different. I get a copy of  
that observer's memories etc and reproduce them here. Now suddenly  
that observer has a continuation that experiences the physics of  
*this* region. But if that was possible, then the physics of both  
regions would have merged,


Not necessarily. It might be that we need to emulate locally, perhaps  
with a quantum computer, his own physical laws, and that we interface  
it properly, which should be possible, given comp is suppose to apply  
to him.






because observers in both regions would already be able to interfere  
with one another's measures.



Not necessarily, because the two region might have undergo deep long  
histories, and the linear multiplication would need white rabbit type  
of event for having the interference.




SO, in order to prevent such interference of measures and a merging  
of physics into an average measure, it must be that in order to  
duplicate an observer in another region, I need to duplicate the  
observer to such a deep level that the separation into the two  
regions is as it were enforced by the very definition of that  
observer. The observer must include the entire computational branch  
down to the point at which the two physics diverged.


I am not convinced. Interference needs very similar experience, or  
amnesia, but in this case, the other region might have a physics which  
can't interfere with us, because they have separated a long time  
ago, and are too much different.


I use the trivia that above the substitution level we are Turing  
emulable.


I might miss your point, also. The idea of inviting someone obeying to  
different physical laws here is not so easy to imagine. Comp would  
allow something like that, but only by simulating well enough the  
different physical laws locally.


Bruno












On 23 May 2015 at 21:23, Pierz pie...@gmail.com wrote:
Some time ago on this list I had a fascinating exchange with Bruno  
that has stayed with me, fuelling some attacks of 4am philosophical  
insomnia - an affliction I imagine I'm not the only person on this  
list to suffer from! If you try to nail Bruno down on some aspects  
of his theory, he has a tendency to get all Sg Grz* and p[]p on  
you at a certain point, making it difficult to progress without a  
PhD in modal logic - despite the fact that I suspect that the ideas  
are fundamentally simple. Nevertheless in the course of the  
discussion, Bruno did acknowledge that his theory predicts that the  
laws of physics are invariant across space and time, because they  
are supposed to arise out of pure arithmetic (being the hypostases  
of the FPI bla blas).  Indeed, for the dissolution of the material  
within the arithmetical to go through (logically), then the  
regularities that we call physical law cannot depend on 

Re: What does the MGA accomplish?

2015-05-25 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 25 May 2015, at 08:58, Bruce Kellett wrote:


Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 18 May 2015, at 02:31, Bruce Kellett wrote:

LizR wrote:
On 17 May 2015 at 11:44, Bruce Kellett  
bhkell...@optusnet.com.au I can see that  
computationalism might well have difficulties

  accommodating a gradual evolutionary understanding of almost
  anything -- after all, the dovetailer is there in Platonia
  before anything physical ever appears. So how can  
consciousness

  evolve gradually?
This is the tired old misunderstanding of the concept of a block  
universe. It's as though Minkowski never existed.


OK. Explain to me exactly how the block universe ideas work out in  
Platonia.

I thought I saw an answer by Liz, but don't find it.


No, Liz only snipes from the sidelines.she does not answer  
substantive questions.


I am not sure that the block physical universe ideas work out in  
Platonia, although block physical multiverse appearance might be  
explainable by the rather canonical all computations, which is  
offered once we agree that 2+2 = 4, or any theorem of RA, is true  
independently of him/her/it.


The block multiverse could well be a different concept from the  
block universe of the Minkowskian understanding of special relativity.


The question arose in a discussion of the possibility of an  
evolutionary understanding of consciousness. This does not, on the  
face of it, appear to sit terribly easily in comp, since comp starts  
from the individual conscious moment or moments, and seeks to  
understand physics as somehow emergent from the statistics of all  
such instantiations of this set of computations in the UD.


Comp just assumes the invariance of consciousness or first person  
experience for some digital substitution. It is an assumption of non  
magic, or non actual infinities playing some role and it is the  
default assumption of many materialist.


Then UDA is an argument showing that this leads to the necessity of  
deriving physics from the math of the machine's dreams and their  
theoretical computer science important redundancies.


Then a theory of consciousness is suggested, as the first person view  
of consistency, as it will corroborate both the comp discourse of the  
machine, and some common conscious experience (if you agree it is  
undoubtable, unjustifiable, unexpressible in 3p discourses, etc.).






This does not appear to relate easily to an account of times before  
and after the existence of that particular consciousness.


UDA explains the problem, and AUDA, which is UDA made so simple and  
elementary that we can explain it to any (Löbian) universal machine,  
and indeed, it is the machine's answer that I give.






Part of my problem is that the UD does not execute any actual  
program sequentially: after each step in a program it executes the  
next step of the next program and so on, until it reaches the first  
step of some program, at which point it loops back to the start.


The UD does  execute sequentially *each* specific program, but the UD  
adds delays, due to its dovetailing duties, which we already know  
(step 2) that it does not change the first person experience of the  
entiuty supported by that execution.





So if the conscious moment is evinced by a logical sequence of steps  
by the dovetailer, it does not correspond to any particular program,  
but a rather arbitrary assortment of steps from many programs.


?
Each execution of the programs is well individuated in the UD*. You  
can descrbied them by sequences


 phi_i^k(j) k = 0, 1, 2, ...(with i and j fixed).





Of course, given that all programs are executed, this sequence of  
steps does correspond to some program, somewhere, but not  
necessarily any of the ones partially executed for generating that  
conscious moment.


Yes. So what?




There is also a question as to whether this sequence of  
computational steps generates one conscious moment



To be sure, I do not believe in one conscious moment. I believe that  
a person can be conscious of moment. But the consciousness of a moment  
is not associated with a moment, but with an infinity of instantiation  
of some relative computational state in (sigma_1) arithmetic.




-- of some shorter or longer duration (duration being in experienced  
time, since the computations are timeless) -- or whether a whole  
conscious life is generated by a continuous sequence of steps, or  
whether the whole history of the world that contains that  
consciousness (and all other conscious beings, past, present, and  
future) are generated by the same (extraordinarily long) continuous  
sequence of computational steps.


Good, you begin to see the problem.




If the idea is something along the lines of the latter possibility,  
then the block universe might well be the result. The problem then,  
of course, is that any particular consciousness will be generated an  
indefinitely great number of separate times for each 

Re: The scope of physical law and its relationship to the substitution level

2015-05-25 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 25 May 2015, at 03:27, meekerdb wrote:


On 5/24/2015 5:05 AM, Pierz wrote:



On Sunday, May 24, 2015 at 4:02:42 PM UTC+10, Brent wrote:
On 5/23/2015 9:58 PM, Pierz wrote:



On Saturday, May 23, 2015 at 8:36:40 PM UTC+10, Liz R wrote:
I'm not sure why comp would predict that physical laws are  
invariant for all observers. I can see that it would lead to a  
sort of super-anthropic-selection effect, but surely all possible  
observers should exist somewhere in arithmetic, including ones who  
observe different physics (that is compatible with their  
existence) ?


I really must dig up the old thread! But I'm not saying comp does  
entail invariant physics for all observers, just that if there are  
different physics, the substitution level must be very low indeed.  
Think of the original scenario in the UDA: a person  
in  Washington is suddenly annihilated, and then  
duplicated in Helsinki and Moscow (or whatever). That operation  
creates a 50% probability of finding oneself in Helsinki or  
Moscow. But the ultimate point of the UDA is that one's actual  
probability of finding oneself in Helsinki or Washington depends  
on the total measure of all virtual environments within which that  
observer is instantiated in an environment that looks like one of  
those cities. One can't isolate a particular virtual system from  
the trace of the UD. So you can't create an arbitrary physics in  
an environment that looks like either city (or anywhere). Well you  
can, but any observer will always find their own physics to be the  
measure of *all* their continuations in arithmetic. So there can't  
be an environment that is like Helsinki or Moscow at some point  
but that has different physical laws. Carry this logic over to the  
scenario of a person standing in an empty room - the physics the  
person experiences will  be the measure of all  
such identical persons standing in empty rooms.


Experiencing physics I think needs some explication.  If  
experiencing only refers to consciously thinking propositions, then  
one may not be experiencing much physics: the world seems 3D with  
colors, there's a mild temperature, air smells OK,...  One doesn't  
directly, consciously experience the 2nd law, or the Born rule.   
The laws of physics are human inventions to describe and predict  
events.  They're not out there in Nature; which is why we have to  
revise them from time to time as we find more comprehensive, more  
accurate laws.


OK, but it doesn't seem relevant to the argument. We experience a  
world predictable and stable in certain ways that, now we're so  
sophisticated, we formalise into the science of physics. Bruno's  
claim is that these regularities are not intrinsic properties of  
some primary stuff, but emergent from the computational properties  
of observers - namely how often various continuations of those  
observers crop up relatively to one another in the abstract space  
of all possible continuations. I'm trying to make an admittedly  
difficult point about whether or not observers in different places  
can experience different physics within this paradigm, and if so,  
how that relates to substitution level. If you're worried about  
people experiencing physics let's just concentrate on observers  
who go to the trouble of doing physics experiments. It really  
doesn't matter.


My point was that most people's conscious experience most of the  
time could be accommodated within a large range of physics.  For  
example Newtonian physics seems intuitive while quantum mechanics  
isn't; but we think QM is the better theory.  But Bruno claims that  
his theory implies QM and not Newtonian mechanics. So if people  
consciously experienced a Newtonian universe (which they once  
thought they did) would that falsify comp or would it just imply  
that the UD can instantiate Newtonian universes.


Which it can't. So, a Newtonian universe would have refute comp, and  
indeed even locality as the Newtonian universe is not local. But of  
course, a computationalist could say, that the newtonian character is  
illusory, and that by looking closer we will discover ... something  
like QM.


Without Everett, I am not sure I would dare to defend the plausibility  
of the comp's consequences, especially with the quantum logic provided  
by the Theaetetus' definitions. Booleanity is not recovered in any  
points of view, but truth and proofs. All the material and  
psychological hypostases are non boolean.


Bruno





Brent




The question here is what constitutes the observer? How detailed  
would a simulation of me have to be before it became a subjective  
duplicate of me, its continuations my continuations? If there is a  
person A somewhere in the UD who is experiencing an empty room  
with physics A, and another identically configured person B  
somewhere else experiencing physics B, what is stopping the  
continuations of A mixing with the continuations 

Re: The scope of physical law and its relationship to the substitution level

2015-05-25 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 24 May 2015, at 11:12, LizR wrote:

The stability of natural laws is also the simplest situation, I  
think? (Isn't there something in Russell's TON about this?) Natural  
laws remain stable due to symmetry principles, which are simpler  
than anything asymmetric (although physics contains some  
asymmetries, of course, like matter vs antimatter).


But simplicity is not by itself something which will multiply you  
enough. Simplicity is not enough. Then RA can be said to be simple but  
is of course quite non symmetrical. (We could take more symmetrical  
ontology, but again, I prefer to start from something not related to  
physics).






I'm not sure about this person in an empty room - surely they  
experience all sorts of phenomena that can ultimately be traced to  
the laws of physics? An obvious one is the pull of gravity (or lack  
thereof).


But I have to admit I can't see how one gets from the UDA to  
physics. The notion that physics falls out of all the computations  
passing through a specific observer moment seems approximately as  
difficult to explain as how physics operates if one assumes primary  
materialism - but of course physics based on primary materialism  
comes with the benefit that for 100s of years, people have believed  
the ontology to be correct, and they have slowly built up a body of  
knowledge on that basis. Hence comp finds itself doubly  
disadvantaged in that no one has worked out how it might work in  
practice, and also in that most people react with an argument from  
incredulity because they've been taught that physics is based on  
primary materialism.


The point is that primary materialism, to operate, as to introduce a  
brain-mind 3p-1p identity thesis which is not sustainable when we  
assume comp.


Then the difference is almost between the difference between ONE  
computation does this, and an infinity of computations of measure one  
does this.


Except that when we do the math, we inherit the intensional variants  
of the G*/G distinction between truth and rational justififiability,  
which enrich the psycho and theo - logical part of the picture,  
usually ignored or denied.







This is a bit like the situation with cars that run on something  
other than petrol, or subcritical nuclear reactors. No one has put  
in a century of research to work out how (say) alcohol driven cars  
might work, or 50 years of research on how thorium reactors might  
work. Or 300 years of thinking on how reality might be derived from  
computations.



Well the first three hundred cars run on hemp, and were made of hemp,  
and people already asked at that time why using non renewable resource  
when renewable one where disposable?


As long as prohibition continue,  as long as the prohibitionist are  
not put in jail, politics does not exist.


Bruno






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Re: Reconciling Random Neuron Firings and Fading Qualia

2015-05-25 Thread Stathis Papaioannou
On Monday, May 25, 2015, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 On 5/24/2015 4:27 PM, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:

 On 25 May 2015 at 07:51, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 On 5/24/2015 11:28 AM, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:

  In a virtual environment, destroying the body destroys the
 consciousness,
 but both are actually due to the underlying computations.


 How can those thumped know it's virtual.  A virtual environment with
 virtual
 people doing virtual actions seems to make virtual virtually
 meaningless.

 The people won't necessarily know, but they could know, as it could be
 revealed by the programmers or deduced from some programming glitch
 (as in the film The Thirteenth Floor). But I don't think it makes a
 difference if they know or not. The answer to the obvious objection
 that if you destroy the brain you destroy consciousness, so
 consciousness can't reside in Platonia, is that both the brain and
 consciousness could reside in Platonia.


 Where ever they reside though you have to explain how damaging the brain
 changes consciousness.  And if you can explain this relation in Platonia
 why won't the same relation exist in Physicalia.


It could happen in both, but it is not evidence against a simulated reality
to say that consciousness seems to be dependent on the apparently physical
brain.


-- 
Stathis Papaioannou

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Re: Reconciling Random Neuron Firings and Fading Qualia

2015-05-25 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 25 May 2015, at 02:06, Jason Resch wrote:




On Sun, May 24, 2015 at 3:52 AM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be  
wrote:


On 23 May 2015, at 17:07, Jason Resch wrote:




On Tue, May 19, 2015 at 12:44 PM, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be  
wrote:


On 19 May 2015, at 15:53, Jason Resch wrote:




On Tue, May 19, 2015 at 12:06 AM, Stathis Papaioannou stath...@gmail.com 
 wrote:

On 19 May 2015 at 14:45, Jason Resch jasonre...@gmail.com wrote:


 On Mon, May 18, 2015 at 9:21 PM, Stathis Papaioannou stath...@gmail.com 


 wrote:

 On 19 May 2015 at 11:02, Jason Resch jasonre...@gmail.com  
wrote:


  I think you're not taking into account the level of the  
functional
  substitution. Of course functionally equivalent silicon and  
functionally
  equivalent neurons can (under functionalism) both instantiate  
the same
  consciousness. But a calculator computing 2+3 cannot  
substitute for a

  human
  brain computing 2+3 and produce the same consciousness.

 In a gradual replacement the substitution must obviously be at  
a level
 sufficient to maintain the function of the whole brain.  
Sticking a

 calculator in it won't work.

  Do you think a Blockhead that was functionally equivalent  
to you (it

  could
  fool all your friends and family in a Turing test scenario  
into thinking

  it
  was intact you) would be conscious in the same way as you?

 Not necessarily, just as an actor may not be conscious in the  
same way
 as me. But I suspect the Blockhead would be conscious; the  
intuition
 that a lookup table can't be conscious is like the intuition  
that an

 electric circuit can't be conscious.


 I don't see an equivalency between those intuitions. A lookup  
table has a
 bounded and very low degree of computational complexity: all  
answers to all

 queries are answered in constant time.

 While the table itself may have an arbitrarily high information  
content,

 what in the software of the lookup table program is there to
 appreciate/understand/know that information?

Understanding emerges from the fact that the lookup table is  
immensely

large. It could be wrong, but I don't think it is obviously less
plausible than understanding emerging from a Turing machine made of
tin cans.



The lookup table is intelligent or at least offers the appearance  
of intelligence, but it makes the maximum possible advantage of  
the space-time trade off: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Space– 
time_tradeoff


The tin-can Turing machine is unbounded in its potential  
computational complexity, there's no reason to be a bio- or silico- 
chauvinist against it. However, by definition, a lookup table has  
near zero computational complexity, no retained state.


But it is counterfactually correct on a large range spectrum. Of  
course, it has to be infinite to be genuinely counterfactual-correct.



But the structure of the counterfactuals is identical regardless of  
the inputs and outputs in its lookup table. If you replaced all of  
its outputs with random strings, would that change its  
consciousness? What if there existed a special decoding book, which  
was a one-time-pad that could decode its random answers? Would the  
existence of this book make it more conscious than if this book did  
not exist? If there is zero information content in the outputs  
returned by the lookup table it might as well return all X  
characters as its response to any query, but then would any program  
that just returns a string of X's be conscious?


A lookup table might have some primitive conscious, but I think any  
consciousness it has would be more or less the same regardless of  
the number of entries within that lookup table. With more entries,  
its information content grows, but it's capacity to process,  
interpret, or understand that information remains constant.


You can emulate the brain of Einstein with a (ridiculously  large)  
look-up table, assuming you are ridiculously patient---or we slow  
down your own brain so that you are as slow as einstein.

Is that incarnation a zombie?

Again, with comp, all incarnations are zombie, because bodies do  
not think. It is the abstract person which thinks, and in this case  
Einstein will still be defined by the simplest normal  
computations, which here, and only here, have taken the form of that  
unplausible giant Einstein look-up table emulation at the right  
level.



That last bit is the part I have difficulty with. How can a a single  
call to a lookup table ever be at the right level.


Actually, the Turing machine formalism is a type of look-up table: if  
you are scanning input i (big numbers describing all your current  
sensitive entries,  while you are in state  
q_169757243685173427379910054234647572376400064994542424646334345787910190034 
676754100687. (big number describing one of your many possible  
mental state, then change the state into q_888..99 and look what next.


By construction that system behaves self-referentially correctly, so  
it 

Re: Reconciling Random Neuron Firings and Fading Qualia errata

2015-05-25 Thread John Mikes
Brent:
would you include in your 'nomologics' all that stuff beyond our present
knowledge as well? Same with causal, but in reverse.
Probabilities depend on the borders we observe: change them and the results
change as well. The same as statistical, with added functionality.

Sorry for my haphazardous formulation - I could have done better.

John Mikes

On Sat, May 23, 2015 at 3:07 AM, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  OOPS. I meant ...randomly means NOT in accordance...

 On 5/22/2015 11:15 PM, meekerdb wrote:


 And note that in this context randomly means in accordance with
 nomologically determined causal probabilities.  It doesn't necessarily mean
 deterministically.

 Brent


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Re: Reconciling Random Neuron Firings and Fading Qualia

2015-05-25 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 24 May 2015, at 23:51, meekerdb wrote:


On 5/24/2015 11:28 AM, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:



On Monday, May 25, 2015, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:
On 5/24/2015 1:52 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
Again, with comp, all incarnations are zombie, because bodies do  
not think. It is the abstract person which thinks


But a few thumps on the body and the abstract person won't think  
either.  So far as we have observered *only* bodies think.  If comp  
implies the contrary isn't that so much the worse for comp.


In a virtual environment, destroying the body destroys the  
consciousness, but both are actually due to the underlying  
computations.


How can those thumped know it's virtual.  A virtual environment with  
virtual people doing virtual actions seems to make virtual 
virtually meaningless.


It is the difference between life and second life. Reality, and  
relative dreams.




Brent

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What do you need to create a universe?

2015-05-25 Thread Frederik Goplen
Suppose I wanted to create a new universe in my lab. What would I need to 
get started?

The question may seem absurd. After all, the universe is enormous. It is 
billions of years old and, as far as we know, it contains all that ever 
existed and ever will exist.

Still it appears that all this—including space, time, energy and 
matter—came into being with the Big Bang. If so, everything we know was 
created out of nothing. Or was it really?

If it is possible to create a universe from nothing—except perhaps from 
some rules like in a computer program—what is to stop us from doing exactly 
that some time in the future?

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Re: Physicists Are Philosophers, Too

2015-05-25 Thread John Mikes
Dear Samiya,
 I do not want to put you on the spot, indeed.
Thank you for a decent and comprehensive reply.
What I referred to as #1, #17 and  #18  were references to YOUR
 post (as your 'numbered' verses from the Q'uran).

I do not believe such discussion may ever result in a reasonable
conclusion.

Thanks for your patience

John M


On Sun, May 24, 2015 at 12:13 AM, Samiya Illias samiyaill...@gmail.com
wrote:

 John M,
 I'm not sure I understand your questions. Can you kindly quote #1, #17 
 #18 so that I can try to respond to it?
 By the way, this thread started with a discussion about global warming,
 and I shared a news from European Space Agency regarding Glacial Melt in
 Antarctica. Is that an authentic news source?
 I later mentioned that I came across this research while trying to
 comprehend the verse from the Quran foretelling the eventual and inevitable
 heating of the seas and only shared the link to my blog.
 Liz asked a question, hence I responded.
 Bruno opined and quoted the Quran, and I responded.
 Nobody is required to believe. If you find the verses of the Quran stating
 truths, it's up to you to choose whether to accept or to reject it.
 If the scriptures are divine guidance and there is a Judgement in the
 Hereafter, then it's to our own personal benefit or loss whether we choose
 to believe or to reject. According to the Quran, God is not affected by our
 choice! The guidance is only there for whoever wishes to help themselves
 and strive for a better future by taking this temporal exam / role /
 aptitude test seriously.
 Why this temporal exam / role / aptitude test, I've already quoted the
 verses which state that humans chose to bear the Trust and therefore the
 need to be judged whether we qualify to inherit the everlasting Earth with
 Gardens, or cannot be trusted with it's well-being.
 To my mind, human actions (individual and collective), as well as
 inaction, which have contributed to global warming and the general state of
 the Earth are quite pertinent to our eligibility to inherit the permanent
 residence of the Hereafter. How many of us can be really trusted with
 something so precious and so permanent?

 Samiya


 On 23-May-2015, at 4:44 pm, John Mikes jami...@gmail.com wrote:

 Samiya,
 so far I kept out from the 'opposition' and tried to comply within my own
 agnosticism.
 Now I get tired of all that fairitale-discussion and ask some questions.

 LizR asked:
   *'Does God give any suggestions as to what we should do?  *
 I start earlier:* Does God give any suggestions why we should accept
 it's(?!) existence?*
 You assign from the Q'uran the Creation. Easy cop-out. If an infinite
 wisdom created a world, why should it be so imperfect together with all its
 inhabitants - requiring constant improvement measures?
 *(...the One who created, knows and is in perfect control of everything
 to the minutest detail, and is therefore able to carry out His Will and
 keep His Promise,...) *

 There is a fundamental illogical factor (for human minds) in the mentioned
 quotes:

 Your #1 is questionable with the everlasting punishment upon a minuscule
 timeframe activity with negligible wisdom - sometimes not even having the
 'means' to know, as e.g. handicapped/birthdefected etc. with death in
 childhood vs old rich imams. The latter maybe in the 'wrong faith(?) as
 Shiites(?), etc.

 Your #17 is a supposition without underlying support - includes also a
 threat.
 In your #18 you flatly deny the opposing opinion without support.
 In the entire position the Q'uran-based faith is postulated and required
 without support to the human mind. It is supported by threats - AND
 violence by terrorist groups in favor (practice?) of such threats.

 That is not the way to gain true believers - IMHO.

 Is there something better you could advise?

 John M


 On Sat, May 23, 2015 at 8:19 AM, Samiya Illias samiyaill...@gmail.com
 wrote:



 On Wed, May 13, 2015 at 2:23 AM, Samiya Illias samiyaill...@gmail.com
 wrote:



 On 12-May-2015, at 9:39 pm, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

 On 13 May 2015 at 14:29, Samiya Illias samiyaill...@gmail.com wrote:

 1) The Quran reminds us that humans have been made Incharge of Earth
 and hence are responsible for the welfare of the Earth and all in it

 Liz, you had asked: 'Does God give any suggestions as to what we should
 do? '

 While reading the Quran this morning, I realized that I had failed to
 mention an important message: that we should not transgress the balance,
 and compassionately establish justice so that the delicate ecosystem is not
 thrown out of balance:
 [Al-Qur'an Chapter 55:1, 7-9, Translator: Sahih International]
 1 The Most Merciful
 7 And the heaven He raised and imposed the balance
 8 That you not transgress within the balance.
 9 And establish weight in justice and do not make deficient the balance.
 http://quran.com/55

 [Al-Qur'an Chapter 42:17-18, Translator: Sahih International]
 17 It is Allah who has sent down the Book in truth and 

Re: What do you need to create a universe?

2015-05-25 Thread Jason Resch
Run a computer simulation that contains a conscious observer and you
have created reality. In another sense, however, all universes already
exist and so you aren't creating anything, only forging a connection
to another universe that's out there.

Jason

On 5/25/15, spudboy100 via Everything List
everything-list@googlegroups.com wrote:
 Eric Steinhart believes like Dawkins does that it is evolution. That the
 simplest starter universe, with something like Conway's Life, can produce
 through a mathematical cascade effect, newer and eventually more complex
 universes. I guess I am dumb enough to look at a prime programmer analyst,
 coming up with an enormous program, but that is me, not Steinhart or
 Dawkins. Other speculations suggested slamming massive amounts of matter
 together, and the backlash would produce a big bang. Others have suggested
 compressing a black hole (astronomical) and viola, a b-b. Others still claim
 that if you can get a BH to spin fast enough, or have exotic matter you can
 open up or deflower, a BH by widening its' access valve, leaving universe to
 universe trade and communication.



 -Original Message-
 From: Frederik Goplen frederikgop...@gmail.com
 To: everything-list everything-list@googlegroups.com
 Sent: Mon, May 25, 2015 3:35 pm
 Subject: What do you need to create a universe?



 Suppose I wanted to create a new universe in my lab. What would I need to
 get started?



 The question may seem absurd. After all, the universe is enormous. It is
 billions of years old and, as far as we know, it contains all that ever
 existed and ever will exist.




 Still it appears that all this—including space, time, energy and matter—came
 into being with the Big Bang. If so, everything we know was created out of
 nothing. Or was it really?




 If it is possible to create a universe from nothing—except perhaps from some
 rules like in a computer program—what is to stop us from doing exactly that
 some time in the future?





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Re: Reconciling Random Neuron Firings and Fading Qualia

2015-05-25 Thread meekerdb

On 5/25/2015 5:16 AM, Pierz wrote:



On Monday, May 25, 2015 at 4:58:53 AM UTC+10, Brent wrote:

On 5/24/2015 4:09 AM, Pierz wrote:



On Sunday, May 24, 2015 at 4:47:12 PM UTC+10, Jason wrote:



On Sun, May 24, 2015 at 12:40 AM, Pierz pie...@gmail.com wrote:



On Sunday, May 24, 2015 at 1:07:15 AM UTC+10, Jason wrote:



On Tue, May 19, 2015 at 12:44 PM, Bruno Marchal 
mar...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


On 19 May 2015, at 15:53, Jason Resch wrote:




On Tue, May 19, 2015 at 12:06 AM, Stathis Papaioannou
stat...@gmail.com wrote:

On 19 May 2015 at 14:45, Jason Resch 
jason...@gmail.com wrote:


 On Mon, May 18, 2015 at 9:21 PM, Stathis Papaioannou
stat...@gmail.com
 wrote:


 On 19 May 2015 at 11:02, Jason Resch 
jason...@gmail.com
wrote:

  I think you're not taking into account the level 
of the
functional
  substitution. Of course functionally equivalent 
silicon
and functionally
  equivalent neurons can (under functionalism) both
instantiate the same
  consciousness. But a calculator computing 2+3 
cannot
substitute for a
  human
  brain computing 2+3 and produce the same 
consciousness.

 In a gradual replacement the substitution must 
obviously be
at a level
 sufficient to maintain the function of the whole 
brain.
Sticking a
 calculator in it won't work.

  Do you think a Blockhead that was functionally
equivalent to you (it
  could
  fool all your friends and family in a Turing test
scenario into thinking
  it
  was intact you) would be conscious in the same way 
as you?

 Not necessarily, just as an actor may not be 
conscious in
the same way
 as me. But I suspect the Blockhead would be 
conscious; the
intuition
 that a lookup table can't be conscious is like the
intuition that an
 electric circuit can't be conscious.


 I don't see an equivalency between those intuitions. A
lookup table has a
 bounded and very low degree of computational 
complexity: all
answers to all
 queries are answered in constant time.

 While the table itself may have an arbitrarily high
information content,
 what in the software of the lookup table program is 
there to
 appreciate/understand/know that information?

Understanding emerges from the fact that the lookup 
table is
immensely
large. It could be wrong, but I don't think it is 
obviously less
plausible than understanding emerging from a Turing 
machine
made of
tin cans.



The lookup table is intelligent or at least offers the 
appearance
of intelligence, but it makes the maximum possible 
advantage of
the space-time trade off:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Space–time_tradeoff
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Space%E2%80%93time_tradeoff

The tin-can Turing machine is unbounded in its potential
computational complexity, there's no reason to be a bio- or
silico-chauvinist against it. However, by definition, a 
lookup
table has near zero computational complexity, no retained 
state.


But it is counterfactually correct on a large range 
spectrum. Of
course, it has to be infinite to be genuinely 
counterfactual-correct.


But the structure of the counterfactuals is identical 
regardless of the
inputs and outputs in its lookup table. If you replaced all of 
its
outputs with random strings, would that 

Re: The Weakness of Panpsychism?

2015-05-25 Thread John Mikes
WAtch out, Liz! you are getting close to ask about PRIME NUMBERS, what
may mean a totally different trap!
John M

On Mon, Mar 16, 2015 at 6:33 PM, LizR lizj...@gmail.com wrote:

 My apologies obviously you did mean finite.

 This is very interesting although probably too much for my brain at the
 moment.

 What is all the stuff about S(S(0)) and {}, {{}}, etc? Doesn't that define
 finite numbers?


 On 17 March 2015 at 05:39, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:


 On 15 Mar 2015, at 21:29, meekerdb wrote:

  On 3/15/2015 10:03 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

 We cannot define the notion of finite number


 This will make it very difficult to interpret the output of your computer.


 I guess you are joking.

 In case you are serious, you really should study a good book on logic.

 Machines can handle many things that they cannot define.

 To make my statement more precise, it means that we cannot build a theory
 having all natural numbers and only the natural numbers as model, by using
 first order logic. In fact no theory of any finite things can be formalized
 in first order logic. There is no first order axiomatization of finite
 group theory, of finite field, etc. There are good theories, even first
 order theories, but they have infinite models.

 We can formalized finiteness in ... second order logic. But this is a
 treachery because this use the notion of finiteness (in explicit or
 implicit way).

 That is the root of the failure of logicism. Not only we have to assume
 the natural numbers and they additive and multiplicative structure, (if we
 want use them), but we can't interpret them categorically or univocally. It
 is a strange world where it can be consistent for a machine to be
 inconsistent.

 What I really meant was: we cannot define the notion of number without
 using the notion of finite number.
 You might try, as a game to define natural number without using the
 notion, like if explaining them to someone who does not grasp them at all
 (if you can imagine that).

 You might say I is a number, and: if x is a number, then Ix is a number.
 The difficulty is in avoiding the person believe that I... become a
 number, with a variety of meaning for ...

 Bruno





 Brent

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Re: The scope of physical law and its relationship to the substitution level

2015-05-25 Thread John Clark
On Sat, May 23, 2015 , Pierz pier...@gmail.com wrote:


  Bruno *did* acknowledge that his theory predicts that the laws of
 physics are invariant across space and time, because they are supposed to
 arise out of pure arithmetic


We know from pure mathematics (by way of Noether's theorem discovered in
1915)  that if the fundamental laws of physics do not change with time then
the conservation of mass/energy must exist. And Noether also tells us that
if the fundamental laws of physics do not change from one place to another
then the law of conservation of momentum must exist. By the way, I don't
think Emmy Noether received the credit she deserved for this enormously
important discovery.


  So on the face of it, the recent measurements of the mass of the Higgs
 boson, which are strongly suggestive of a multiverse


I don't think the discovery of the Higgs boson has much to say about the
existence or nonexistence of the multiverse one way or the other. On the
other hand the discovery of primordial gravitational waves would be pretty
good evidence of the existence of the multiverse but nobody has ever
detected them, everybody thought we had about a year ago but that turned
out to be a false alarm. Maybe next year.


  might be seen as empirical evidence against 'comp'.


Of that I have no opinion because nobody knows what comp means, least of
all Bruno.

  John K Clark

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Re: What do you need to create a universe?

2015-05-25 Thread spudboy100 via Everything List
Eric Steinhart believes like Dawkins does that it is evolution. That the 
simplest starter universe, with something like Conway's Life, can produce 
through a mathematical cascade effect, newer and eventually more complex 
universes. I guess I am dumb enough to look at a prime programmer analyst, 
coming up with an enormous program, but that is me, not Steinhart or Dawkins. 
Other speculations suggested slamming massive amounts of matter together, and 
the backlash would produce a big bang. Others have suggested compressing a 
black hole (astronomical) and viola, a b-b. Others still claim that if you can 
get a BH to spin fast enough, or have exotic matter you can open up or 
deflower, a BH by widening its' access valve, leaving universe to universe 
trade and communication. 



-Original Message-
From: Frederik Goplen frederikgop...@gmail.com
To: everything-list everything-list@googlegroups.com
Sent: Mon, May 25, 2015 3:35 pm
Subject: What do you need to create a universe?


 
Suppose I wanted to create a new universe in my lab. What would I need to get 
started?  
   
  
  
The question may seem absurd. After all, the universe is enormous. It is 
billions of years old and, as far as we know, it contains all that ever existed 
and ever will exist.  
  
   
  
  
Still it appears that all this—including space, time, energy and matter—came 
into being with the Big Bang. If so, everything we know was created out of 
nothing. Or was it really?  
  
   
  
  
If it is possible to create a universe from nothing—except perhaps from some 
rules like in a computer program—what is to stop us from doing exactly that 
some time in the future?  
  
   
  
 
  
 --  
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Re: What do you need to create a universe?

2015-05-25 Thread spudboy100 via Everything List
What about such universes or subregions,domains, that sadly, lack a conscious 
observer? What creates or sends the observer, perhaps a jobs agency? Observer 
needed to alter empty spacetime region. Must be experienced in science, 
history, and philosophy, and mathematics. Willing to take on a trainee.



-Original Message-
From: Jason Resch jasonre...@gmail.com
To: everything-list everything-list@googlegroups.com
Sent: Mon, May 25, 2015 4:41 pm
Subject: Re: What do you need to create a universe?


Run a computer simulation that contains a conscious observer and you
have
created reality. In another sense, however, all universes already
exist and so
you aren't creating anything, only forging a connection
to another universe
that's out there.

Jason

On 5/25/15, spudboy100 via Everything
List
everything-list@googlegroups.com wrote:
 Eric Steinhart believes like
Dawkins does that it is evolution. That the
 simplest starter universe, with
something like Conway's Life, can produce
 through a mathematical cascade
effect, newer and eventually more complex
 universes. I guess I am dumb enough
to look at a prime programmer analyst,
 coming up with an enormous program,
but that is me, not Steinhart or
 Dawkins. Other speculations suggested
slamming massive amounts of matter
 together, and the backlash would produce a
big bang. Others have suggested
 compressing a black hole (astronomical) and
viola, a b-b. Others still claim
 that if you can get a BH to spin fast
enough, or have exotic matter you can
 open up or deflower, a BH by widening
its' access valve, leaving universe to
 universe trade and
communication.



 -Original Message-
 From: Frederik Goplen
frederikgop...@gmail.com
 To: everything-list
everything-list@googlegroups.com
 Sent: Mon, May 25, 2015 3:35 pm

Subject: What do you need to create a universe?



 Suppose I wanted to
create a new universe in my lab. What would I need to
 get
started?



 The question may seem absurd. After all, the universe is
enormous. It is
 billions of years old and, as far as we know, it contains all
that ever
 existed and ever will exist.




 Still it appears that
all this—including space, time, energy and matter—came
 into being with the
Big Bang. If so, everything we know was created out of
 nothing. Or was it
really?




 If it is possible to create a universe from
nothing—except perhaps from some
 rules like in a computer program—what is to
stop us from doing exactly that
 some time in the future?





 
--
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everything-list+unsubscr...@googlegroups.com.
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Re: What do you need to create a universe?

2015-05-25 Thread spudboy100 via Everything List
I would say a novel may help make a blueprint, a direction, a precis, but not a 
cosmos itself. Once upon a time..



-Original Message-
From: LizR lizj...@gmail.com
To: everything-list everything-list@googlegroups.com
Sent: Mon, May 25, 2015 6:44 pm
Subject: Re: What do you need to create a universe?


 
Writing a novel is one way. 
 
  
  
On 26 May 2015 at 09:13, spudboy100 via Everything List
everything-list@googlegroups.com wrote:   
   
What about such universes or subregions,domains, that sadly, lack a 
conscious observer? What creates or sends the observer, perhaps a jobs agency? 
Observer needed to alter empty spacetime region. Must be experienced in 
science, history, and philosophy, and mathematics. Willing to take on a 
trainee.
 
 
  
  -Original Message-
 From: Jason Resch jasonre...@gmail.com
 To: everything-list everything-list@googlegroups.com
  
   
 Sent: Mon, May 25, 2015 4:41 pm
 Subject: Re: What do you need to create a universe?
 
 
  
Run a computer simulation that contains a conscious observer and you
have
created reality. In another sense, however, all universes already
exist and so
you aren't creating anything, only forging a connection
to another universe
that's out there.

Jason

On 5/25/15, spudboy100 via Everything
List
everything-list@googlegroups.com wrote:
 Eric Steinhart believes like
Dawkins does that it is evolution. That the
 simplest starter universe, with
something like Conway's Life, can produce
 through a mathematical cascade
effect, newer and eventually more complex
 universes. I guess I am dumb enough
to look at a prime programmer analyst,
 coming up with an enormous program,
but that is me, not Steinhart or
 Dawkins. Other speculations suggested
slamming massive amounts of matter
 together, and the backlash would produce a
big bang. Others have suggested
 compressing a black hole (astronomical) and
viola, a b-b. Others still claim
 that if you can get a BH to spin fast
enough, or have exotic matter you can
 open up or deflower, a BH by widening
its' access valve, leaving universe to
 universe trade and
communication.



 -Original Message-
 From: Frederik Goplen
frederikgop...@gmail.com
 To: everything-list
everything-list@googlegroups.com
 Sent: Mon, May 25, 2015 3:35 pm

Subject: What do you need to create a universe?



 Suppose I wanted to
create a new universe in my lab. What would I need to
 get
started?



 The question may seem absurd. After all, the universe is
enormous. It is
 billions of years old and, as far as we know, it contains all
that ever
 existed and ever will exist.




 Still it appears that
all this—including space, time, energy and matter—came
 into being with the
Big Bang. If so, everything we know was created out of
 nothing. Or was it
really?




 If it is possible to create a universe from
nothing—except perhaps from some
 rules like in a computer program—what is to
stop us from doing exactly that
 some time in the future?





 
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Re: The scope of physical law and its relationship to the substitution level

2015-05-25 Thread meekerdb

On 5/25/2015 9:56 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 24 May 2015, at 11:12, LizR wrote:

The stability of natural laws is also the simplest situation, I think? (Isn't there 
something in Russell's TON about this?) Natural laws remain stable due to symmetry 
principles, which are simpler than anything asymmetric (although physics contains some 
asymmetries, of course, like matter vs antimatter).


But simplicity is not by itself something which will multiply you enough. Simplicity is 
not enough. Then RA can be said to be simple but is of course quite non symmetrical. (We 
could take more symmetrical ontology, but again, I prefer to start from something not 
related to physics).






I'm not sure about this person in an empty room - surely they experience all sorts of 
phenomena that can ultimately be traced to the laws of physics? An obvious one is the 
pull of gravity (or lack thereof).


But I have to admit I can't see how one gets from the UDA to physics. The notion that 
physics falls out of all the computations passing through a specific observer moment 
seems approximately as difficult to explain as how physics operates if one assumes 
primary materialism - but of course physics based on primary materialism comes with 
the benefit that for 100s of years, people have believed the ontology to be correct, 
and they have slowly built up a body of knowledge on that basis. Hence comp finds 
itself doubly disadvantaged in that no one has worked out how it might work in 
practice, and also in that most people react with an argument from incredulity 
because they've been taught that physics is based on primary materialism.


The point is that primary materialism, to operate, as to introduce a brain-mind 3p-1p 
identity thesis which is not sustainable when we assume comp.


Then the difference is almost between the difference between ONE computation does this, 
and an infinity of computations of measure one does this.


Except that when we do the math, we inherit the intensional variants of the G*/G 
distinction between truth and rational justififiability, which enrich the psycho and 
theo - logical part of the picture, usually ignored or denied.







This is a bit like the situation with cars that run on something other than petrol, or 
subcritical nuclear reactors. No one has put in a century of research to work out how 
(say) alcohol driven cars might work, or 50 years of research on how thorium reactors 
might work. Or 300 years of thinking on how reality might be derived from computations.



Well the first three hundred cars run on hemp, and were made of hemp, and people already 
asked at that time why using non renewable resource when renewable one where disposable?


?? I don't think Karl Benz made any part of the first car from hemp and he ran it on 
alcohol and benzene.


Henry Ford, as an experiment, made car with a body of plastic from soy beans, 
but not hemp.

Brent

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Re: The scope of physical law and its relationship to the substitution level

2015-05-25 Thread meekerdb

On 5/25/2015 9:31 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 25 May 2015, at 03:27, meekerdb wrote:


On 5/24/2015 5:05 AM, Pierz wrote:



On Sunday, May 24, 2015 at 4:02:42 PM UTC+10, Brent wrote:

On 5/23/2015 9:58 PM, Pierz wrote:



On Saturday, May 23, 2015 at 8:36:40 PM UTC+10, Liz R wrote:

I'm not sure why comp would predict that physical laws are invariant 
for all
observers. I can see that it would lead to a sort of
super-anthropic-selection effect, but surely all possible observers 
should
exist somewhere in arithmetic, including ones who observe different 
physics
(that is compatible with their existence) ?


I really must dig up the old thread! But I'm not saying comp does entail
invariant physics for all observers, just that if there are different 
physics,
the substitution level must be very low indeed. Think of the original 
scenario in
the UDA: a person in Washington is suddenly annihilated, and then 
duplicated in
Helsinki and Moscow (or whatever). That operation creates a 50% probability 
of
finding oneself in Helsinki or Moscow. But the ultimate point of the UDA is 
that
one's actual probability of finding oneself in Helsinki or Washington 
depends on
the total measure of /all/ virtual environments within which that observer 
is
instantiated in an environment that looks like one of those cities. One 
can't
isolate a particular virtual system from the trace of the UD. So you can't 
create
an arbitrary physics in an environment that looks like either city (or 
anywhere).
Well you can, but any observer will always find their own physics to be the
measure of *all* their continuations in arithmetic. So there can't be an
environment that is like Helsinki or Moscow at some point but that has 
different
physical laws. Carry this logic over to the scenario of a person standing 
in an
empty room - the physics the person experiences will be the measure of all 
such
identical persons standing in empty rooms.


Experiencing physics I think needs some explication.  If experiencing only
refers to consciously thinking propositions, then one may not be 
experiencing much
physics: the world seems 3D with colors, there's a mild temperature, air 
smells
OK,...  One doesn't directly, consciously experience the 2nd law, or the 
Born
rule.  The laws of physics are human inventions to describe and predict events. 
They're not out there in Nature; which is why we have to revise them from time to

time as we find more comprehensive, more accurate laws.

OK, but it doesn't seem relevant to the argument. We experience a world predictable 
and stable in certain ways that, now we're so sophisticated, we formalise into the 
science of physics. Bruno's claim is that these regularities are not intrinsic 
properties of some primary stuff, but emergent from the computational properties of 
observers - namely how often various continuations of those observers crop up 
relatively to one another in the abstract space of all possible continuations. I'm 
trying to make an admittedly difficult point about whether or not observers in 
different places can experience different physics within this paradigm, and if so, how 
that relates to substitution level. If you're worried about people experiencing 
physics let's just concentrate on observers who go to the trouble of doing physics 
experiments. It really doesn't matter.


My point was that most people's conscious experience most of the time could be 
accommodated within a large range of physics.  For example Newtonian physics seems 
intuitive while quantum mechanics isn't; but we think QM is the better theory.  But 
Bruno claims that his theory implies QM and not Newtonian mechanics. So if people 
consciously experienced a Newtonian universe (which they once thought they did) would 
that falsify comp or would it just imply that the UD can instantiate Newtonian universes.


Which it can't. So, a Newtonian universe would have refute comp, and indeed even 
locality as the Newtonian universe is not local. But of course, a computationalist could 
say, that the newtonian character is illusory, and that by looking closer we will 
discover ... something like QM.


So you are claiming that it would be impossible to have a conscious being that experienced 
a Newtonian universe - that this would produce a logical contradiction?


Brent

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Re: What do you need to create a universe?

2015-05-25 Thread LizR
Writing a novel is one way.

On 26 May 2015 at 09:13, spudboy100 via Everything List 
everything-list@googlegroups.com wrote:

 What about such universes or subregions,domains, that sadly, lack a
 conscious observer? What creates or sends the observer, perhaps a jobs
 agency? Observer needed to alter empty spacetime region. Must be
 experienced in science, history, and philosophy, and mathematics. Willing
 to take on a trainee.


 -Original Message-
 From: Jason Resch jasonre...@gmail.com
 To: everything-list everything-list@googlegroups.com
 Sent: Mon, May 25, 2015 4:41 pm
 Subject: Re: What do you need to create a universe?

  Run a computer simulation that contains a conscious observer and you
 have
 created reality. In another sense, however, all universes already
 exist and so
 you aren't creating anything, only forging a connection
 to another universe
 that's out there.

 Jason

 On 5/25/15, spudboy100 via Everything
 List
 everything-list@googlegroups.com wrote:
  Eric Steinhart believes like
 Dawkins does that it is evolution. That the
  simplest starter universe, with
 something like Conway's Life, can produce
  through a mathematical cascade
 effect, newer and eventually more complex
  universes. I guess I am dumb enough
 to look at a prime programmer analyst,
  coming up with an enormous program,
 but that is me, not Steinhart or
  Dawkins. Other speculations suggested
 slamming massive amounts of matter
  together, and the backlash would produce a
 big bang. Others have suggested
  compressing a black hole (astronomical) and
 viola, a b-b. Others still claim
  that if you can get a BH to spin fast
 enough, or have exotic matter you can
  open up or deflower, a BH by widening
 its' access valve, leaving universe to
  universe trade and
 communication.
 
 
 
  -Original Message-
  From: Frederik Goplen
 frederikgop...@gmail.com
  To: everything-list
 everything-list@googlegroups.com
  Sent: Mon, May 25, 2015 3:35 pm
 
 Subject: What do you need to create a universe?
 
 
 
  Suppose I wanted to
 create a new universe in my lab. What would I need to
  get
 started?
 
 
 
  The question may seem absurd. After all, the universe is
 enormous. It is
  billions of years old and, as far as we know, it contains all
 that ever
  existed and ever will exist.
 
 
 
 
  Still it appears that
 all this—including space, time, energy and matter—came
  into being with the
 Big Bang. If so, everything we know was created out of
  nothing. Or was it
 really?
 
 
 
 
  If it is possible to create a universe from
 nothing—except perhaps from some
  rules like in a computer program—what is to
 stop us from doing exactly that
  some time in the future?
 
 
 
 
 
 
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Re: What does the MGA accomplish?

2015-05-25 Thread Bruce Kellett

Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 25 May 2015, at 08:58, Bruce Kellett wrote:

Part of my problem is that the UD does not execute any actual program 
sequentially: after each step in a program it executes the next step 
of the next program and so on, until it reaches the first step of some 
program, at which point it loops back to the start.


The UD does  execute sequentially *each* specific program, but the UD 
adds delays, due to its dovetailing duties, which we already know (step 
2) that it does not change the first person experience of the entiuty 
supported by that execution.


So if the conscious moment is evinced by a logical sequence of steps 
by the dovetailer, it does not correspond to any particular program, 
but a rather arbitrary assortment of steps from many programs.


?
Each execution of the programs is well individuated in the UD*. You can 
descrbied them by sequences


 phi_i^k(j) k = 0, 1, 2, ...(with i and j fixed).


But each step of the dovetailer is just a single application of the 
axioms of the Turing machine in question: one of the

   Kxy  gives x,
   Sxyz gives xz(yz),
for example. These single steps are all that there is in the dovetailer. 
But such steps lack a context -- they make no sense on their own. You 
could simply claim that the two basic steps are all that is needed -- 
consciousness self-assembles by taking as many of these in whatever 
order is needed.


If the next step of program phi_i is some 10^50 or so dovetailer steps 
away, the only thing that could possibly link these is the program phi_i 
itself -- the actual execution of the steps is entirely secondary. In 
which case, one would say that consciousness resides in the program 
phi_i itself - execution on the dovetailer is not required. I do not 
think you would want to go down this path, so you need something to give 
each step a context, something to link the separate steps that are 
required for consciousness.


The teleportation arguments of Steps 1-7 are insufficient for this, 
since in that argument you are teleporting complete conscious entities, 
not just single steps of the underlying program.


Of course, given that all programs are executed, this sequence of 
steps does correspond to some program, somewhere, but not necessarily 
any of the ones partially executed for generating that conscious moment.


Yes. So what?


I was trying to give you a way out of the problems that I have raised 
above. If you don't see that the sequential steps of the actual 
dovetailer program give the required connectivity, then what does? You 
did, some time ago, claim that the dovetailer steps gave an effective 
time parameter for the  system. But even that requires a contextual link 
between the steps -- something that would be given by the underlying 
stepping -- which is not the stepping of each individual program phi_i.


Bruce

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Re: What does the MGA accomplish?

2015-05-25 Thread Bruce Kellett

meekerdb wrote:

On 5/25/2015 5:54 PM, Bruce Kellett wrote:

Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 25 May 2015, at 08:58, Bruce Kellett wrote:

Part of my problem is that the UD does not execute any actual 
program sequentially: after each step in a program it executes the 
next step of the next program and so on, until it reaches the first 
step of some program, at which point it loops back to the start.


The UD does  execute sequentially *each* specific program, but the UD 
adds delays, due to its dovetailing duties, which we already know 
(step 2) that it does not change the first person experience of the 
entiuty supported by that execution.


So if the conscious moment is evinced by a logical sequence of steps 
by the dovetailer, it does not correspond to any particular program, 
but a rather arbitrary assortment of steps from many programs.


?
Each execution of the programs is well individuated in the UD*. You 
can descrbied them by sequences


 phi_i^k(j) k = 0, 1, 2, ...(with i and j fixed).


But each step of the dovetailer is just a single application of the 
axioms of the Turing machine in question: one of the

   Kxy  gives x,
   Sxyz gives xz(yz),
for example. These single steps are all that there is in the 
dovetailer. But such steps lack a context -- they make no sense on 
their own. You could simply claim that the two basic steps are all 
that is needed -- consciousness self-assembles by taking as many of 
these in whatever order is needed.


If the next step of program phi_i is some 10^50 or so dovetailer steps 
away, the only thing that could possibly link these is the program 
phi_i itself -- the actual execution of the steps is entirely 
secondary. In which case, one would say that consciousness resides in 
the program phi_i itself - execution on the dovetailer is not 
required. I do not think you would want to go down this path, so you 
need something to give each step a context, something to link the 
separate steps that are required for consciousness.


The teleportation arguments of Steps 1-7 are insufficient for this, 
since in that argument you are teleporting complete conscious 
entities, not just single steps of the underlying program.


Of course, given that all programs are executed, this sequence of 
steps does correspond to some program, somewhere, but not 
necessarily any of the ones partially executed for generating that 
conscious moment.


Yes. So what?


I was trying to give you a way out of the problems that I have raised 
above. If you don't see that the sequential steps of the actual 
dovetailer program give the required connectivity, then what does? You 
did, some time ago, claim that the dovetailer steps gave an effective 
time parameter for the  system. But even that requires a contextual 
link between the steps -- something that would be given by the 
underlying stepping -- which is not the stepping of each individual 
program phi_i.


I think what it boils down to is that steps in phi_{i}, where {i} is a 
set indexing programs supporting a particular consciousness, must be 
linked by representing consciousness of the same thing, the same 
thought.  But I think that requires some outside reference whereby they 
can be about the same thing.  So it is not enough to just link the 
phi_{i} of the single consciousness, they must also be linked to an 
environment.  I think this part of what Pierz is saying.  He says the 
linkage cannot merge different physics, so effectively the thread of 
computations instantiating Bruce's consciousness imply the computation 
of a whole world (with physics) for Bruce's consciousness to exist in.


My original question here concerned the connectivity in Platonia for the 
computational steps of an individual consciousness. But I do agree that 
we have to go beyond this because consciousness is conscious of 
*something*, viz., an external world, so that has to be part of the 
computation -- so that when I hit you hard on the head, your self in 
Platonia loses consciousness. There is endless connectivity between the 
self and the world external to the self -- and this covers all space and 
time, because my consciousness can be changed by a CMB photon. Hence my 
thinking that the whole universe (multiverse) may well have to be 
included in the same connected simulation in Platonia.


Bruno does not seem to have thought along these lines.

Bruce

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Re: Reconciling Random Neuron Firings and Fading Qualia

2015-05-25 Thread meekerdb

On 5/25/2015 10:48 AM, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:



On Monday, May 25, 2015, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net mailto:meeke...@verizon.net 
wrote:


On 5/24/2015 4:27 PM, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:

On 25 May 2015 at 07:51, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

On 5/24/2015 11:28 AM, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:

In a virtual environment, destroying the body destroys the 
consciousness,
but both are actually due to the underlying computations.


How can those thumped know it's virtual.  A virtual environment 
with virtual
people doing virtual actions seems to make virtual virtually 
meaningless.

The people won't necessarily know, but they could know, as it could be
revealed by the programmers or deduced from some programming glitch
(as in the film The Thirteenth Floor). But I don't think it makes a
difference if they know or not. The answer to the obvious objection
that if you destroy the brain you destroy consciousness, so
consciousness can't reside in Platonia, is that both the brain and
consciousness could reside in Platonia.


Where ever they reside though you have to explain how damaging the brain 
changes
consciousness.  And if you can explain this relation in Platonia why won't 
the same
relation exist in Physicalia.


It could happen in both, but it is not evidence against a simulated reality to say that 
consciousness seems to be dependent on the apparently physical brain.


A reality is only simulated relative to some more real reality - so I'm not sure what 
the point of referring to a simulated reality is.  The question is whether the move to 
Platonia really solves the mind-body problem or just rephrases it as the body-mind problem.


Brent

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Re: The scope of physical law and its relationship to the substitution level

2015-05-25 Thread meekerdb

On 5/25/2015 10:45 AM, John Clark wrote:

On Sat, May 23, 2015 , Pierz pier...@gmail.com mailto:pier...@gmail.com 
wrote:

 Bruno /did/ acknowledge that his theory predicts that the laws of physics 
are
invariant across space and time, because they are supposed to arise out of 
pure
arithmetic


We know from pure mathematics (by way of Noether's theorem discovered in 1915)  that if 
the fundamental laws of physics do not change with time then the conservation of 
mass/energy must exist. And Noether also tells us that if the fundamental laws of 
physics do not change from one place to another then the law of conservation of momentum 
must exist. By the way, I don't think Emmy Noether received the credit she deserved for 
this enormously important discovery.


And to expand on that point, note that if we find a law of physics that depends explicitly 
on time or location, we would be reluctant to consider it fundamental and we would look 
for some more fundamental law that explained its dependence.  Incidentally, what Noether 
proved is that for each symmetry in the Lagrangian of a physical system there is a 
corresponding conserved quantity and vice versa.  So for an expanding universe, one that 
has no time-like Killing vector field, there is no conserved mass/energy.  John Baez 
(Joan's cousin) has a good essay on this online.


Brent

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Re: Reconciling Random Neuron Firings and Fading Qualia

2015-05-25 Thread meekerdb

On 5/25/2015 11:55 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 24 May 2015, at 23:51, meekerdb wrote:


On 5/24/2015 11:28 AM, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:



On Monday, May 25, 2015, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net mailto:meeke...@verizon.net 
wrote:


On 5/24/2015 1:52 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

Again, with comp, all incarnations are zombie, because bodies do not 
think. It
is the abstract person which thinks


But a few thumps on the body and the abstract person won't think either.  
So far
as we have observered *only* bodies think.  If comp implies the contrary 
isn't
that so much the worse for comp.


In a virtual environment, destroying the body destroys the consciousness, but both are 
actually due to the underlying computations.


How can those thumped know it's virtual.  A virtual environment with virtual people 
doing virtual actions seems to make virtual virtually meaningless.


It is the difference between life and second life. Reality, and relative dreams.


That's the question, can such a difference be meaningful if the world is defined by 
conscious experience. In the examples you give, the virtual is distinguished because it is 
not a rich and complete and consistent as real life.


Brent

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Re: What do you need to create a universe?

2015-05-25 Thread LizR
I was speaking metaphorically.

There are those who think a new universe may form inside a black hole, of
course. (This isn't safe in the lab OR easy to communicate with, however.)

On 26 May 2015 at 10:52, spudboy100 via Everything List 
everything-list@googlegroups.com wrote:

 I would say a novel may help make a blueprint, a direction, a precis, but
 not a cosmos itself. Once upon a time..


 -Original Message-
 From: LizR lizj...@gmail.com
 To: everything-list everything-list@googlegroups.com
 Sent: Mon, May 25, 2015 6:44 pm
 Subject: Re: What do you need to create a universe?

  Writing a novel is one way.

  On 26 May 2015 at 09:13, spudboy100 via Everything List 
 everything-list@googlegroups.com wrote:

 What about such universes or subregions,domains, that sadly, lack a
 conscious observer? What creates or sends the observer, perhaps a jobs
 agency? Observer needed to alter empty spacetime region. Must be
 experienced in science, history, and philosophy, and mathematics. Willing
 to take on a trainee.


  -Original Message-
 From: Jason Resch jasonre...@gmail.com
 To: everything-list everything-list@googlegroups.com
   Sent: Mon, May 25, 2015 4:41 pm
 Subject: Re: What do you need to create a universe?

  Run a computer simulation that contains a conscious observer and you
 have
 created reality. In another sense, however, all universes already
 exist and so
 you aren't creating anything, only forging a connection
 to another universe
 that's out there.

 Jason

 On 5/25/15, spudboy100 via Everything
 List
 everything-list@googlegroups.com wrote:
  Eric Steinhart believes like
 Dawkins does that it is evolution. That the
  simplest starter universe, with
 something like Conway's Life, can produce
  through a mathematical cascade
 effect, newer and eventually more complex
  universes. I guess I am dumb enough
 to look at a prime programmer analyst,
  coming up with an enormous program,
 but that is me, not Steinhart or
  Dawkins. Other speculations suggested
 slamming massive amounts of matter
  together, and the backlash would produce a
 big bang. Others have suggested
  compressing a black hole (astronomical) and
 viola, a b-b. Others still claim
  that if you can get a BH to spin fast
 enough, or have exotic matter you can
  open up or deflower, a BH by widening
 its' access valve, leaving universe to
  universe trade and
 communication.
 
 
 
  -Original Message-
  From: Frederik Goplen
 frederikgop...@gmail.com
  To: everything-list
 everything-list@googlegroups.com
  Sent: Mon, May 25, 2015 3:35 pm
 
 Subject: What do you need to create a universe?
 
 
 
  Suppose I wanted to
 create a new universe in my lab. What would I need to
  get
 started?
 
 
 
  The question may seem absurd. After all, the universe is
 enormous. It is
  billions of years old and, as far as we know, it contains all
 that ever
  existed and ever will exist.
 
 
 
 
  Still it appears that
 all this—including space, time, energy and matter—came
  into being with the
 Big Bang. If so, everything we know was created out of
  nothing. Or was it
 really?
 
 
 
 
  If it is possible to create a universe from
 nothing—except perhaps from some
  rules like in a computer program—what is to
 stop us from doing exactly that
  some time in the future?
 
 
 
 
 
 
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Re: What does the MGA accomplish?

2015-05-25 Thread meekerdb

On 5/25/2015 5:54 PM, Bruce Kellett wrote:

Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 25 May 2015, at 08:58, Bruce Kellett wrote:

Part of my problem is that the UD does not execute any actual program sequentially: 
after each step in a program it executes the next step of the next program and so on, 
until it reaches the first step of some program, at which point it loops back to the 
start.


The UD does  execute sequentially *each* specific program, but the UD adds delays, due 
to its dovetailing duties, which we already know (step 2) that it does not change the 
first person experience of the entiuty supported by that execution.


So if the conscious moment is evinced by a logical sequence of steps by the 
dovetailer, it does not correspond to any particular program, but a rather arbitrary 
assortment of steps from many programs.


?
Each execution of the programs is well individuated in the UD*. You can descrbied them 
by sequences


 phi_i^k(j) k = 0, 1, 2, ...(with i and j fixed).


But each step of the dovetailer is just a single application of the axioms of the Turing 
machine in question: one of the

   Kxy  gives x,
   Sxyz gives xz(yz),
for example. These single steps are all that there is in the dovetailer. But such steps 
lack a context -- they make no sense on their own. You could simply claim that the two 
basic steps are all that is needed -- consciousness self-assembles by taking as many of 
these in whatever order is needed.


If the next step of program phi_i is some 10^50 or so dovetailer steps away, the only 
thing that could possibly link these is the program phi_i itself -- the actual execution 
of the steps is entirely secondary. In which case, one would say that consciousness 
resides in the program phi_i itself - execution on the dovetailer is not required. I do 
not think you would want to go down this path, so you need something to give each step a 
context, something to link the separate steps that are required for consciousness.


The teleportation arguments of Steps 1-7 are insufficient for this, since in that 
argument you are teleporting complete conscious entities, not just single steps of the 
underlying program.


Of course, given that all programs are executed, this sequence of steps does 
correspond to some program, somewhere, but not necessarily any of the ones partially 
executed for generating that conscious moment.


Yes. So what?


I was trying to give you a way out of the problems that I have raised above. If you 
don't see that the sequential steps of the actual dovetailer program give the required 
connectivity, then what does? You did, some time ago, claim that the dovetailer steps 
gave an effective time parameter for the  system. But even that requires a contextual 
link between the steps -- something that would be given by the underlying stepping -- 
which is not the stepping of each individual program phi_i.


I think what it boils down to is that steps in phi_{i}, where {i} is a set indexing 
programs supporting a particular consciousness, must be linked by representing 
consciousness of the same thing, the same thought.  But I think that requires some outside 
reference whereby they can be about the same thing.  So it is not enough to just link the 
phi_{i} of the single consciousness, they must also be linked to an environment.  I think 
this part of what Pierz is saying.  He says the linkage cannot merge different physics, so 
effectively the thread of computations instantiating Bruce's consciousness imply the 
computation of a whole world (with physics) for Bruce's consciousness to exist in.


My apologies if I'm mistaking your or Pierz's ideas.

Brent

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Re: Reconciling Random Neuron Firings and Fading Qualia

2015-05-25 Thread Pierz


On Tuesday, May 26, 2015 at 6:49:51 AM UTC+10, Brent wrote:

  On 5/25/2015 5:16 AM, Pierz wrote:
  


 On Monday, May 25, 2015 at 4:58:53 AM UTC+10, Brent wrote: 

  On 5/24/2015 4:09 AM, Pierz wrote:
  


 On Sunday, May 24, 2015 at 4:47:12 PM UTC+10, Jason wrote: 



 On Sun, May 24, 2015 at 12:40 AM, Pierz pie...@gmail.com wrote:



 On Sunday, May 24, 2015 at 1:07:15 AM UTC+10, Jason wrote: 



 On Tue, May 19, 2015 at 12:44 PM, Bruno Marchal mar...@ulb.ac.be 
 wrote:
  

   On 19 May 2015, at 15:53, Jason Resch wrote:

  

 On Tue, May 19, 2015 at 12:06 AM, Stathis Papaioannou 
 stat...@gmail.com wrote:

  On 19 May 2015 at 14:45, Jason Resch jason...@gmail.com wrote:
 
 
  On Mon, May 18, 2015 at 9:21 PM, Stathis Papaioannou 
 stat...@gmail.com
  wrote: 

 
  On 19 May 2015 at 11:02, Jason Resch jason...@gmail.com wrote:
 
   I think you're not taking into account the level of the 
 functional
   substitution. Of course functionally equivalent silicon and 
 functionally
   equivalent neurons can (under functionalism) both instantiate 
 the same
   consciousness. But a calculator computing 2+3 cannot substitute 
 for a
   human
   brain computing 2+3 and produce the same consciousness.
 
  In a gradual replacement the substitution must obviously be at a 
 level
  sufficient to maintain the function of the whole brain. Sticking a
  calculator in it won't work.
 
   Do you think a Blockhead that was functionally equivalent to 
 you (it
   could
   fool all your friends and family in a Turing test scenario into 
 thinking
   it
   was intact you) would be conscious in the same way as you?
 
  Not necessarily, just as an actor may not be conscious in the 
 same way
  as me. But I suspect the Blockhead would be conscious; the 
 intuition
  that a lookup table can't be conscious is like the intuition that 
 an
  electric circuit can't be conscious.
 
 
  I don't see an equivalency between those intuitions. A lookup 
 table has a
  bounded and very low degree of computational complexity: all 
 answers to all
  queries are answered in constant time.
 
  While the table itself may have an arbitrarily high information 
 content,
  what in the software of the lookup table program is there to
  appreciate/understand/know that information?

Understanding emerges from the fact that the lookup table is 
 immensely
 large. It could be wrong, but I don't think it is obviously less
 plausible than understanding emerging from a Turing machine made of
 tin cans.
  

 
  The lookup table is intelligent or at least offers the appearance 
 of intelligence, but it makes the maximum possible advantage of the 
 space-time trade off: 
 http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Space–time_tradeoff

  The tin-can Turing machine is unbounded in its potential 
 computational complexity, there's no reason to be a bio- or 
 silico-chauvinist against it. However, by definition, a lookup table has 
 near zero computational complexity, no retained state. 


But it is counterfactually correct on a large range spectrum. Of 
 course, it has to be infinite to be genuinely counterfactual-correct. 
  
 
  But the structure of the counterfactuals is identical regardless of 
 the inputs and outputs in its lookup table. If you replaced all of its 
 outputs with random strings, would that change its consciousness? What if 
 there existed a special decoding book, which was a one-time-pad that 
 could 
 decode its random answers? Would the existence of this book make it more 
 conscious than if this book did not exist? If there is zero information 
 content in the outputs returned by the lookup table it might as well 
 return 
 all X characters as its response to any query, but then would any 
 program 
 that just returns a string of X's be conscious?

 I really like this argument, even though I once came up with a 
 (bad) attempt to refute it. I wish it received more attention because it 
 does cast quite a penetrating light on the issue. What you're suggesting 
 is 
 effectively the cache pattern in computer programming, where we trade 
 memory resources for computational resources. Instead of repeating a 
 resource-intensive computation, we store the inputs and outputs for later 
 regurgitation. 
  

  How is this different from a movie recording of brain activity (which 
 most on the list seem to agree is not conscious)? The lookup table is just 
 a really long recording, only we use the input to determine to which 
 section of the recording to fast-forward/rewind to.

It isn't different to a recording. But here's the thing: when we ask 
 if the lookup machine is conscious, we are kind of implicitly asking: is it 
 having an experience *now*, while I ask the question and see a response. 
 But what does such a question actually even mean? If a computation is 
 underway in time when the machine responds, then I assume it is having a 
 co-temporal experience. But the lookup machine idea forces us to the 
 realization that 

Re: The scope of physical law and its relationship to the substitution level

2015-05-25 Thread LizR
On 26 May 2015 at 04:56, Bruno Marchal marc...@ulb.ac.be wrote:

 On 24 May 2015, at 11:12, LizR wrote:

 The stability of natural laws is also the simplest situation, I think?
 (Isn't there something in Russell's TON about this?) Natural laws remain
 stable due to symmetry principles, which are simpler than anything
 asymmetric (although physics contains some asymmetries, of course, like
 matter vs antimatter).

 But simplicity is not by itself something which will multiply you enough.
 Simplicity is not enough. Then RA can be said to be simple but is of course
 quite non symmetrical. (We could take more symmetrical ontology, but again,
 I prefer to start from something not related to physics).


I think the idea in TON is that simple cases are easier to generate
computationally, and hence have a higher measure in the space of all
computations. Or something like that. Maybe Russell will put me right on
this.

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Re: The scope of physical law and its relationship to the substitution level

2015-05-25 Thread LizR
On 25 May 2015 at 05:50, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

 On 5/24/2015 2:12 AM, LizR wrote:

 The stability of natural laws is also the simplest situation, I think?
 (Isn't there something in Russell's TON about this?) Natural laws remain
 stable due to symmetry principles, which are simpler than anything
 asymmetric (although physics contains some asymmetries, of course, like
 matter vs antimatter).

 I'm not sure about this person in an empty room - surely they
 experience all sorts of phenomena that can ultimately be traced to the laws
 of physics? An obvious one is the pull of gravity (or lack thereof).

 But I have to admit I can't see how one gets from the UDA to physics. The
 notion that physics falls out of all the computations passing through a
 specific observer moment seems approximately as difficult to explain as how
 physics operates if one assumes primary materialism - but of course
 physics based on primary materialism comes with the benefit that for 100s
 of years, people have believed the ontology to be correct, and they have
 slowly built up a body of knowledge on that basis. Hence comp finds itself
 doubly disadvantaged in that no one has worked out how it might work in
 practice, and also in that most people react with an argument from
 incredulity because they've been taught that physics is based on primary
 materialism.

 This is a bit like the situation with cars that run on something other
 than petrol, or subcritical nuclear reactors. No one has put in a century
 of research to work out how (say) alcohol driven cars might work, or 50
 years of research on how thorium reactors might work. Or 300 years of
 thinking on how reality might be derived from computations.


 Well actually cars running on alcohol raced on U.S. tracks through most of
 the 20th century.


Hardly the same as millions being built and honed to meet consumer demand
worldwide over a century, is it?


 A thorium reactor was built and operated in the 50's.


The use of 'a' here is rather telling, Again there hasn't anything like
been the time and effort expended.

I think a more accurate analogy would working out how cars would run on
 trigonometry or philology.


That is nothing like as accurate an analogy. The correct metaphor is to
find two things that could in theory be equally plausible, one of which has
been chosen due to historical accident, and the other of which has been
virtually ignored. So, A+ for (as usual) desperately finding something
wrong with what I've said, but in this case D- for the actual content of
your objections.

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Re: The scope of physical law and its relationship to the substitution level

2015-05-25 Thread LizR
On 26 May 2015 at 10:39, meekerdb meeke...@verizon.net wrote:

  On 5/25/2015 10:45 AM, John Clark wrote:

  On Sat, May 23, 2015 , Pierz pier...@gmail.com wrote:


  Bruno *did* acknowledge that his theory predicts that the laws of
 physics are invariant across space and time, because they are supposed to
 arise out of pure arithmetic


  We know from pure mathematics (by way of Noether's theorem discovered in
 1915)  that if the fundamental laws of physics do not change with time then
 the conservation of mass/energy must exist. And Noether also tells us that
 if the fundamental laws of physics do not change from one place to another
 then the law of conservation of momentum must exist. By the way, I don't
 think Emmy Noether received the credit she deserved for this enormously
 important discovery.


 And to expand on that point, note that if we find a law of physics that
 depends explicitly on time or location, we would be reluctant to consider
 it fundamental and we would look for some more fundamental law that
 explained its dependence.  Incidentally, what Noether proved is that for
 each symmetry in the Lagrangian of a physical system there is a
 corresponding conserved quantity and vice versa.  So for an expanding
 universe, one that has no time-like Killing vector field, there is no
 conserved mass/energy.  John Baez (Joan's cousin) has a good essay on this
 online.


Yes, the fact that energy isn't conserved in the actual universe has long
been a source of (minor) amusement to me. But generally, as Brent says,
given some apparent assymmetry the natural tendency of science is to look
for some law in which things *are* conserved and try to explain why they
aren't in this particular case - graduating from a flat Earth that isn't at
the centre of the universe is an example of this. (This hasn't yet happened
for matter and antimatter, or indeed something and nothing, but we live in
hope).

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Re: The scope of physical law and its relationship to the substitution level

2015-05-25 Thread LizR
On 26 May 2015 at 05:45, John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.com wrote:

 On Sat, May 23, 2015 , Pierz pier...@gmail.com wrote:


  Bruno *did* acknowledge that his theory predicts that the laws of
 physics are invariant across space and time, because they are supposed to
 arise out of pure arithmetic


 We know from pure mathematics (by way of Noether's theorem discovered in
 1915)  that if the fundamental laws of physics do not change with time then
 the conservation of mass/energy must exist. And Noether also tells us that
 if the fundamental laws of physics do not change from one place to another
 then the law of conservation of momentum must exist. By the way, I don't
 think Emmy Noether received the credit she deserved for this enormously
 important discovery.


One of the understatements of the century, although I think Einstein,
Hilbert and others gave her the credit she was due. But not the world
outside the scientific establishment. Indeed it took years for her to get
any sort of academic post if I remember correctly.

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Re: Michael Shermer becomes sceptical about scepticism!

2015-05-25 Thread LizR
On 25 May 2015 at 00:34, Pierz pier...@gmail.com wrote:


 On Monday, May 4, 2015 at 9:08:30 PM UTC+10, spudb...@aol.com wrote:

 I sure did, Telmo. Scroll to the bottom and you shall view my last,
 number 26th, the last one. This kind of thing is interesting to me. I tend
 toward the materialist stuff since it seems to have potential. The
 mentalist stuff seems unreliable because people who have NDE's or trances
 have not come back with information.


 ? Highly debatable! It's true that so far I'm not aware of any experiments
 in which NDE subjects reported the content of cards put in places only
 visible from the ceiling (as some researchers have tried)

 This could invalidate the top-down view often reportedly experienced in
NDEs, but my 13 year old daughter told me the other day that she can easily
imagine herself from an outside viewpoint (we weren't talking about NDEs or
anything like that) so it is certainly possible for people to do this.
Hence people being conscious in some sense during NDEs isn't invalidated
by their inability to spot cards hidden on top of cabinets, even if the
viewpoint described is. It remains possible that they are aware of their
surroundings.mind you I'm also very sceptical of this woman's report,
how exact and well testified is it, and could she have picked up the
information smoe other way?

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Re: The scope of physical law and its relationship to the substitution level

2015-05-25 Thread Bruce Kellett

LizR wrote:
On 26 May 2015 at 05:45, John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.com 
mailto:johnkcl...@gmail.com wrote:


Of that I have no opinion because nobody knows what comp means,
least of all Bruno. 

Comp is the theory that consciousness is the product of Turing-emulable 
processes, i.e. that it's a computation.


Actually, that strictly does not follow. All that follows is that a 
computer can emulate certain physical processes upon which consciousness 
supervenes. This does not mean that consciousness is a computation, in 
Platonia or anywhere else. All that we know from the evidence is that 
consciousness supervenes on physical brains.


Bruce


The idea that we may one day 
create AIs is based on the same assumption. There are a couple of extra 
assumptions to do with certain mathematical ideas being correct (e.g. 
the Church-Turing thesis, I believe). But I believe it's a fairly 
standard theory used by a lot of scientists - Hugh Everett III for 
example used it in his thesis.


For clarity I have called this comp1 and Bruno's results derived from it 
comp2, but unless someone can show a fault in the argument connecting 
them this is a purely nominal distinction.


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Re: The scope of physical law and its relationship to the substitution level

2015-05-25 Thread LizR
On 26 May 2015 at 05:45, John Clark johnkcl...@gmail.com wrote:

 Of that I have no opinion because nobody knows what comp means, least of
 all Bruno.

 Comp is the theory that consciousness is the product of Turing-emulable
processes, i.e. that it's a computation. The idea that we may one day
create AIs is based on the same assumption. There are a couple of extra
assumptions to do with certain mathematical ideas being correct (e.g. the
Church-Turing thesis, I believe). But I believe it's a fairly standard
theory used by a lot of scientists - Hugh Everett III for example used it
in his thesis.

For clarity I have called this comp1 and Bruno's results derived from it
comp2, but unless someone can show a fault in the argument connecting them
this is a purely nominal distinction.

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