Re: Arithmetic doesn't even suggest geometry, let alone awareness.

2012-11-14 Thread Craig Weinberg


On Tuesday, November 13, 2012 12:15:48 AM UTC-5, John Clark wrote:
>
> On Sun, Nov 11, 2012Craig Weinberg >wrote:
>
> >> I do know that over the past year you have told this list that 
>>> information does not exist, and neither do electrons or time or space or 
>>> bits or even logic, so I don't see why the nonexistence of movement in a 
>>> "comp universe" or any other sort of universe would bother you.
>>>
>>
>> > It bothers me because it doesn't make sense to suggest that a universe 
>> of experiences full of objects and positions can be reduced to a mechanism
>>
>
> But a universe without electrons or time or space or bits or logic does 
> make sense? Lack of logic makes sense?
>

Spacetime exists for us as objects, it just doesn't exist independently of 
objects. The difference between object surfaces is a spatial discernment of 
sense. Logic is an intellectual sense of summarizing other kinds of sense 
in a minimalist way. Bits are a figure of speech referring to the role 
played by a class of controlled physical structures. All of these things 
are very natural and easy to explain for me as aspects of sense. There is 
no mathematical justification for geometry though that I can think of. 
Nobody else seems to be able to think of one either.
 

>
> > What I am pointing out is that what comp implies is a universe which 
>> looks and feels nothing like the one which we actually live in.
>>
>
> I'm not here to defend "comp", that's Bruno's job, I don't even know what 
> the word means.
>

Then we have no beef. 
 

>
> > It does present a plausible range of logical functions which remind us 
>> of some aspects of our minds, but I think that there is another reason for 
>> that, which has to do with the nature of arithmetic.
>>
>
> So the fact that arithmetic can produce the exact same sort of behavior 
> that minds are so proud of, like playing Chess or solving equations or 
> winning millions on Jeopardy, is all just a big coincidence. If you really 
> believe that then there is a bridge I'd like to sell you.
>

It's not a coincidence at all, but neither is the fact that arithmetic 
fails miserably at producing the sort of behavior that minds take for 
granted, like caring about something or having a personality.
 

>
> >> Electrons move around the chips in your computer, and potassium and 
>>> sodium ions move around the Cerebral Cortex of your brain.
>>>
>>
>> > That doesn't matter.
>>
>
> Doesn't matter?! If I change the position of those potassium and sodium 
> ions in your brain it will matter very much to you because your 
> consciousness will change. Yes that's right, the position of those 
> "meaningless objects" can be the difference between ecstasy and suicidal 
> depression, and you Craig Weinberg will never find anything that matters 
> more than that.
>

You are making my point. They only matter to me because of the feelings and 
experiences their configurations make available to me. Nobody cares about 
them for what they are, only what we feel, and what we feel is in no way 
linked to those objects except through empirical relation. There is no 
theory by which their configuration should lead to anything beyond the 
configuration itself.
 

>
> > My point is that our senses require a particular presentation of forms 
>> and experience for us to consciously make sense,
>>
>
> Einstein had access to the same raw data as everybody else, but being a 
> genius he could make sense out of it even though the data was not presented 
> in a ideal way, and once he had done that he could teach those with less 
> powerful minds, like you and me, how to make sense out of it too. Exactly 
> the same is true of computers.
>

Einstein made more sense of the data was through imagination and discovery, 
not through mechanistic data processing or accumulation of knowledge. That 
is not true of computers.  


> > I would agree that it [a computer] is better at plotting such a complex 
>> object rotation on a screen for us to admire, but the computer itself 
>> wouldn't know an object from a string of bank transactions. Computers know 
>> nothing,
>>
>
> I would like to know how you know that computers know nothing. Did that 
> knowledge come to you in a dream?
>

Because I understand what knowledge is and I understand why computers can't 
experience knowing. How do you know that Bugs Bunny isn't tasting anything 
when he eats a carrot?
 

>
> > What a computer does is no different than what a lever does when a metal 
>> ball falls on to one side of it and the other side rises.
>>
>
> Well... A computer is no different from a few hundred trillion levers 
> interconnected in just the right way that rise and fall several billion 
> times a second, and you're no different from that either.
>

We are completely different - we are a single cell which knows how to 
divide itself into trillions of copies. We are not an assembly of 
disconnected parts.
 

>
> > You will likely tell me again that potassium ions are n

Re: Plato's cave analogy

2012-11-14 Thread Stephen P. King

On 11/14/2012 4:29 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

Dear Bruno,

   My claim is that the phrase that you used above "...we agree that 
for all " is just another way of thinking of my definition of 
reality as "That which is incontrovertible for some collection of 
observers that can communicate with each other". It is the mutual 
agreement between all participants, be they electrons or amoeba or 
human or galactic clusters, that makes a reality "real".


OK. That is recovered in comp by the notion of first person plural 
(duplication of machine population) 

Dear Bruno,

How exactly is the duplication achieved? What indexes the 
differences? A Blum complexity measure?


--
Onward!

Stephen


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Re: Re: Leibniz's pre-composed harmonic orchestral performance

2012-11-14 Thread Platonist Guitar Cowboy
Hi Roger,

The definition of harmony you cite above is "entertainment biased",
because: Virtually all music is dissonant as the vast majority of music
includes more complex fundamental frequency ratios than unison and octave:
anything more complex than 1:1, 2:1, 3:1 etc. is by strict definition
already dissonant, leading to rational number ratios etc. Note this is true
independently of "somewhat muddled and defective senses".

But there's not a large target market for such music: it would be fun to
compose music with little dissonance and just Octaves all day... but they
already do a version of this with New Age, meditation music etc. but they
still need more than the octave, to not bore the listeners to death with
static sine wave @ 440hz. But you can't mix 12-tone music with more
traditional systems of harmony, unless you build larger musical contexts,
because conjunction, transition, simultaneity, harmony, dissonance are
defined very differently. Like instead of "either this chord or that chord
for this genre in this musical context" in more traditional harmony, you
get "this chord AND that chord" in 12-tone music; with either chord on its
own being "false" in most 12-tone context.

Mark

On Fri, Nov 9, 2012 at 4:14 PM, Roger Clough  wrote:

> Hi Russell Standish
>
>
> I left out the part that the perfect harmony is
> only possible in Platonia, but when performed
> and/or listened to on earth by people with
> somehat muddled or defective senses (us),
> will contain distortions and dissonances.
>
>
> Roger Clough, rclo...@verizon.net
> 11/9/2012
> "Forever is a long time, especially near the end." -Woody Allen
>
>
> - Receiving the following content -
> From: Russell Standish
> Receiver: everything-list
> Time: 2012-11-08, 19:23:50
> Subject: Re: Leibniz's pre-composed harmonic orchestral performance
>
>
> On Thu, Nov 08, 2012 at 05:59:15AM -0500, Roger Clough wrote:
> > Hi Russell Standish
> >
> > Yes, the orchestra with the supreme monad as
> > composer/conductor playing a pleasing orchestra
> > composition (not 12-tone !) that he dug up out of his
> > a priori files works fine.
>
> That is what is incompatible with QM. Sorry...
>
>
> --
>
>
> 
> Prof Russell Standish Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
> Principal, High Performance Coders
> Visiting Professor of Mathematics hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
> University of New South Wales http://www.hpcoders.com.au
>
> 
>
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Re: Against Mechanism

2012-11-14 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 13 Nov 2012, at 19:53, John Clark wrote:

On Tue, Nov 13, 2012 at 10:29 AM, Bruno Marchal   
wrote:


> > As for what the Helsinki Man imagines will happen to him after  
he pushes that button I really don't care because that depends  
entirely on the particular personal beliefs of the man involved.


> That is non sense.

If he's a devout Muslim he believes he will go to heaven with 77  
virgins when he pushes that button, but as I said I really don't  
care what he believes will happen, I care about what will happen.


That was my point. What happen does not depend on the beliefs.





> > we find that the Washington man remembers being the Helsinki man  
and remembers that man walking into the booth and being instantly  
teleported to Washington where he is alive and well,


> OK. He feels alive and well, and he has kept his identity. he is  
the Helsinki man.


Yes, but he is not the only Helsinki man because YOU HAVE BEEN  
DUPLICATED, and that means the 1P view has been duplicated too,


As seen from the 3-views on the 1-views. But not as seen by the 1- 
views. You did agree that each copies feel to be in only once city.



and that means the 1P view from the 1P view has been duplicated too,  
and that means the 1P view from the 1P view from the 1P view has  
been duplicated too


As seen each time from some 3-view, but that is not what is asked.





> So he can verify if his prediction done in Helsinki is correct. If  
he predicted "Washington", that is correct, for him. If he predicted  
"Moscow", that is incorrect for him, and if he predicted "Washington  
and Moscow", that is incorrect for him (and for the other). If he  
predicted "washington OR Moscow" that is correct for him,


Once upon a time there was a equation called X^2=2, and X always  
wondered what number he would turn out to be, and then one day a  
magical munchkin mathematician solved the equation and said that X  
was plus 2 and minus 2.


X = 2 OR X = -2.
X cannot be equal to 2 and -2.




All was well until minus 2 said the mathematician was wrong about  
who X was and that caused great strife in the land. Minus 2 said he  
was the solution to the equation and what's more he could prove it,  
and minus 2 said he was one and only one number and he certainly  
wasn't plus 2, so the great mathematician was wrong and was unable  
to predict what X would be. Unfortunately the number plus 2 started  
making similar claims about being the solution to the equation and  
got into a huge fight with minus 2, but they all added up to nothing.


  THE END


> This comes from the fact that all notions involved, including the  
notion of first person, in this setting, admits transparent third  
person description, like the diary, the bodies, etc.


There is nothing in those diaries, nothing about the bodies and no  
third party description that I failed to predict.


Indeed, but you fail to predict the first party description, which was  
the question. you seem to partially eliminate the first person, when  
prediction are asked to them about them, like if by some magic, you  
are all the copies at once, which would contradict comp.







> localizing oneself in a city.

If a problem has 2 solutions that means it does not have one and  
only one solution. How profound.


 > you predicted W and M. But "W and M" never occurs.

Mr. Washington man are you also the Helsinki man? Yes. Are you now  
in one and only one city and is that city Washington? Yes.


Mr. Moscow man are you also the Helsinki man? Yes. Are you now in  
one and only one city and is that city Moscow? Yes.


Mr. Helsinki man, that is to say the guy who is still experiencing  
Helsinki, are you still the Helsinki man? Only dead silence can be  
heard as a answer.


?
Unclear. After the pushing on the button, nobody is in helsinki. But  
the helsinki man survived in W and M, where both copies agree they are  
in once city and that they could not predict which one in advance.






And so "W and M" ALWAYS occurs,


From the 3-views.  never from the 1-views, and I said explicitly that  
here, "W "and "M" are the self-localization output experience. "W and  
M" NEVER occurs as it is logically impossible.



that is to say the Helsinki man from the Helsinki man's viewpoint  
will be the Washington man and the Helsinki man from the Helsinki  
man's viewpoint will be the Moscow man. And the Helsinki man from  
the view of the guy who stayed in Helsinki no longer has a viewpoint  
of any sort.


> You are still confusing "the guy in in this city" and "I feel now  
to be in this city"


And you are still confused by the fact that "I" is no longer  
singular because I HAS BEEN DUPLICATED AND SO HAS ALL OF I'S  
VIEWPOINTS.


Obviosuly not from the 1p perspective.

You only keep avoiding the question asked.






>> even if the Helsinki man was Bruno Marchal, even he made the  
correct prediction. Bruno Marchal predicted that 2 people will feel  
to be the Helsinki man and Bruno M

Re: Doesn't UDA simply imply that teleportation is impossible?

2012-11-14 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 13 Nov 2012, at 19:34, Stephen P. King wrote:


On 11/13/2012 11:14 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 13 Nov 2012, at 00:48, Stephen P. King wrote:


On 11/12/2012 12:50 PM, Bruno Marchal wrote:


On 12 Nov 2012, at 17:08, Bruno Marchal wrote:



On 11 Nov 2012, at 21:16, Stephen P. King wrote:



This is what I wish to know and understand as well! AFAIK, comp  
seems to only define a single conscious mind!


?

That is contradicted by step 3, which features two different  
conscious mind, one in Moscow, and the other in M.
Then after UDA we know that arithmetic is full of quite  
different conscious entities, from machines to many Gods and  
perhaps God.
You might confuse individual persons and the abstract Löbian  
machine common to them.





Bruno talks about plurality but never shows how the plurality  
of numbers and their mutual exclusive identities transfers onto  
a plurality of minds.


It seems obvious, as arithmetic allow different machines with  
different experiences and minds.


Once I said that I am open to the idea that there is only one  
first person.


  If there is only one first person how is the content of such  
completely self-consistent?


There is only one person, in the sense of saying that if I  
duplicate you in the WM way, you can consider that the person in W  
and M are the same person (indeed you), but just put in different  
context.


No need to proceed if you disagree with this. It jusy makes sense:  
it is consistent with comp, but the contrary too, so no need to  
proceed on that identity question before understanding the whole  
UDA, as you might be confused. It is really another topic.


Dear Bruno,

   We need to better understand where you define "personal identity"  
such that this all follows.


I have already explain how UDA avoids the need of solving the personal  
identity problem.





What defines your notion of "same"?


There are as many notion of same that there are hypostases.







My problem is that I don't understand how all of the possible  
points of view implied by a plurality of minds can be combined  
together into a single narrative of a self.


One the same person might have different experiences in this case.


   What defines "sameness"?


At the ontological level, it is defined by the axiom of equality.
At the other level, by the hypostases modalities, and their  
arithmetical content, or their higher level contents. But we don't  
need that to get the "reversal".








Then, it an altogether different question to see if such lives can  
be recombined. I think so, but again, this is not used in the  
reasoning.
the reason I think so is that we can wake up and realize we were  
doing two dreams at once. It is not different than remembering two  
different hollidays, and not being able to remember which one occur  
first.








That might also be confused with solipsism.


  If there is only one mind that exists then that mind is  
solipsistic by definition;


Not with the usual definition of solipsism, which makes the others  
into zombie.






there are no other minds to consider.


The other mind still exists, even if they belong to the experiences  
of the same person. It is like with time travel. You go in the past  
and talk with yourself. That is locally two different minds, even  
if from a later pov, they can appear to belong to the same person.


Comp does not exclude *logically* that I might wake up and realize  
that dreamed both your life and mine.




"... the self is the only existing reality and that all other  
reality, including the external world and other persons, are  
representations of that self, and have no independent existence."  
It seems that minds cannot know of each other directly at all.




Again, this is truly even more at the opposite of solipsism. It  
is the case where not only you attribute consciousness to others,  
but you attribute to them your own identity,


  What does this mean: "you attribute to them your own identity?


Imagine you look at a video. You see children playing soccer, and  
then after 10 minutes, you realize that one of the kid there is  
you. You recognize yourself in that kid. Well, it is the same here.  
You recognize yourself in some other.


  I do not understand your definition of "same-ness". My notion of  
"same person" has to do with my memory of being in a succession of  
locations and states in a narratable sequence where each new  
experience is not inconsistent with the previous states and locations.


Don't mind this too much. I tend to think that there is only one 1p- 
person, but this is advanced speculation. It is not used for the  
reversal, and my opinion on this can still change a lot.











where solipsism denies them consciousness and subjective identity  
(and thus consider them as zombie).


  Yes, in the case of strong solipsism, but solipsism is not a bad  
thing if we are careful.


Solipsism is or the type fact, from the 1p view, but becomes a  

Re: Plato's cave analogy

2012-11-14 Thread Bruno Marchal


On 13 Nov 2012, at 18:54, Stephen P. King wrote:


On 11/13/2012 10:46 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
There is a cost in resource utilization (or entropy generation)  
to gain knowledge.


I can still agree. Then the comp consequence is that the physical  
resources are derivable from a notion of arithmetical resource.


Dear Bruno,

  Could you explain this idea of arithmetical resource in depth?


Just imagine the universal dovetailer. It generates and implements,  
and execute all programs. The infinite resource of arithmetic is  
just that we agree that for all x, there is a y with y > x. It is  
trivial. PA proves AxEy(x < y  & x ≠ y)


Dear Bruno,

   My claim is that the phrase that you used above "...we agree that  
for all " is just another way of thinking of my definition of  
reality as "That which is incontrovertible for some collection of  
observers that can communicate with each other". It is the mutual  
agreement between all participants, be they electrons or amoeba or  
human or galactic clusters, that makes a reality "real".


OK. That is recovered in comp by the notion of first person plural  
(duplication of machine population)





This is a result of taking seriously the consequences of many minds  
and their mutual statistics. It allows us to derive many properties  
and conditions that have to be just assumed to be the case of  
postulated in single mind theories. What I am proposing is a way to  
bridge between Universals and Nominals to eliminate what I believe  
to be a false dichotomy in ontology.
   This is not a matter of choice or contrivance. We see something  
like this in any system of interactions between many entities. For  
example, if I find the local valuation of currencies to be  
inconsistent with my goods and services then I will not be able to  
interact in a local economy. If I do not find the Doctors in a  
universe to able to determine the proper level of functional  
substitution of my brain then my ability to be independent of a  
particular physical body in that universe cannot occur.



No problem with this.
The difference is methodological. I derive necessary propositions from  
comp, only.








May be you are still skeptical that the elementary arithmetical  
relations implement all computations, but this is the big thing  
discovered by Post, Church, Kleene, and others and which is the  
base of computer science.


   My problem is that I do not understand how you stratify the many  
levels of significance of the numbers. You propose that {0,1, +, *}  
are ontologically primitive



I do not. I derive this from comp.



and then jump over what ontological process generates all things  
from that basis set of primitives.


? I use only the postulated laws (addition and multiplication, in case  
of numbers).




I have been considering a Heraclitean view that takes Becoming as  
fundamental, but you seem intent on keeping your ontology as  
Changeless.


I use comp, and no more.



I am baffled as to how you seem OK to use the language of Becoming  
(as you use verbs and discuss actions at the arithmetic level) but  
never discuss how the Becoming or Change comes to be.


That's the easy part. Computations are dynamical notion, even if they  
have simple 3p statical descriptions.






Matiyasevitch extended such result by showing that for getting the  
Turing universality, the diophantine polynomial of degree four are  
enough.


   Sure, but his work does not solve the ontological problem.


?
It does. The ontology with comp, is given by the terms of whatever  
logical specifications you give for some universal system you choose.  
We have chosen the numbers, so the ontology is given by N = {0,  
s(0), ...}.


Bruno


http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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