That's based on an assumption of additivity. Has that assumption been 
well-tested? 

Paul Bernhardt
Dept of Psychology
Frostburg State University
pcbernhardt _at_ frostburg _dot_ edu

On Mar 10, 2010, at 10:15 PM, Jim Clark wrote:

> Hi
> 
> I'm not sure it does make sense.  If the placebo effect is getting stronger, 
> then shouldn't the med effect also get stronger because of its placebo 
> effect?  That is, med effect is hypothesized to be combination of placebo + 
> med, hence the rationale for the placebo control group.  So you have 
> something like:
> 
> placebo(1990) + med versus placebo(1990) in 1990
> 
> and
> 
> placebo(2010) + med versus placebo(2010) in 2010
> 
> I do not see how this can lead to a narrowing of the med effect?
> 
> Take care
> Jim
> 
> 
> James M. Clark
> Professor of Psychology
> 204-786-9757
> 204-774-4134 Fax
> [email protected]





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