> In Ps 51.10 ---------> must we understand the pronoun "asher" as having > been (deliberately or not) forgotten/omitted before the last word "dikita"? > > Or maybe not? Namely, is there a good reason for the lacking of "asher"?
There are a couple of 'reasons' for not using asher in the phrase tagelna `atsamot dikita "may 'bones you crushed' rejoice" 1. there is a tendency for indefinite and less-definite nouns not to use an 'asher' in their linking, the more so in poetry. 2. Probably more importantly here, the metre is tight without 'asher'. 51:9-10 form a little subsection of the poem and each line is a 3-3 word stress. In other words "it sounded better" without asher. blessings Randall Buth -- Randall Buth, PhD www.biblicallanguagecenter.com Biblical Language Center Learn Easily - Progress Further - Remember for Life _______________________________________________ b-hebrew mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
