Pere: On Thu, Jul 5, 2012 at 11:22 AM, Pere Porta <[email protected]> wrote:
> So, and putting aside this verse (Ecc 9:12), is it right to state that in > a general way there is NO difference between the Qal passive Participle and > the Niph'al Participle concerning their meanings? > > Pere Porta > > No, this is not “NO difference”, rather that there is an overlap of meaning where either can be used. David Kolinsky makes a good point as to the differences, yet even there the overlap of action can be seen. In poetic use, either can be used to fit the meter of the song. Karl W. Randolph. _______________________________________________ b-hebrew mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
