Rolf Furuli is still having some trouble sending and receiving posts. I send 
this through on his behalf:

GEORGE ATHAS
Dean of Research,
Moore Theological College (moore.edu.au)
Sydney, Australia



=========

Dear listmembers,

I would like to express some thoughts regarding the supposed solidity of the 
RQ(, and I will return to the etymological fallacy and related issues, that is, 
to lexical semantics.

It was not the RQ( that lifted the waters, but it was God, and is portrayed as 
a part his acts in creation. I see no reason why the lifting of the waters 
should imply that the RQ( was solid. The ancients knew that clouds existed 
above their heads, and that rain came down. The fact that waters existed above 
did not lead to the conclusion that something solid held the clouds in space.

I would like to discuss the prepositions used in connection with RQ(. In 
Genesis 1:7 we find prepositions that clearly have the meaning "below" and 
"above."  In 1:15, 16, 17 we find the preposition B, which can have the local 
meaning "in." (We find this meaning in several Bible translations.). I 1:20 we 
(L-PNY, and how shal we understand this?  In Genesis 1:2 and 6:1, (L-PNY 
evidently has the meaning "upon"; in 1:29 we find the meaning "upon" or "on the 
face of." So where did the birds fly? Below a solid firmament. No, the 
preposition TXT is not used, as it is in Ezekiel 1:23, where we have a symbolic 
representation of God's throne. The NIV and JPS renders the expression in 
Genesis 1:20 as "across the expanse," and in my view, this is a good choice. 
Which prepositions are used is in no way conclusive. But the natural conclusion 
simply is that RQ( is the atmosphere; the luminaries are viewed as lights "in" 
the atmosphere, and the birds fly "across" the atmosphere.

A basic linguistic conclusion is that we must have a diachronic view of lexical 
semantics. Word meaning and the referenses of a word changes through time. 
Therefore, it is a fallacy to use the oldest meaning of a word to understand 
its reference in a particular context. This means that etymological arguments 
are weak indeed. It is also a fallacy to use similar roots in cognate languages 
the establish the meaning or reference of a Hebrew word in a particular 
contexts. A good example is the root )MR. In Hebrew the meaning is  "say," in 
Akkadian AMARU has the meaning "see," and in Ethiopic AMMARA has the mening 
"show; indicate; tell." The diachronic change in word meaning is much greater 
when we compare cognate languages than when we look at Hebrew texts with 
different ages. It is also a fallacy to use Pseudepigraphic writings or 
writings from different nations to find the meaning or reference of a Hebrew 
word, used in a particular context. The views of the authors of such writi
 ngs need not be the same as the views of the writers of Genesis.

So, I return to Barrs dictum: The meaning and reference of a word can only be 
found in the synchronic uses of it, that is, how the word is used in a 
particular short time.



Best regards,


Rolf Furuli
Stavern
Norway


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