Yigal Levin and Will Parsons:   
To Prof. Yigal Levin’s comment that “If they  wrote at all, the Patriarchs 
would have written in Canaanite and the Israelite  slaves in Egyptian”, 
Will Parsons responded:  “Well, I would think that the Patriarchs  would have 
written in Canaanite because that was their language, but I do think  that 
the Israelite slaves would be unlikely to write in  Egyptian.” 
Why are you two gentlemen talking about  something that is never attested 
historically?  Based on what’s attested historically,  there were never any “
Israelite slaves” in Egypt.  Moreover, there’s no basis for such a  
supposition linguistically either: 
“There are very few foreign (i.e., non-Hebrew) words in the text of 
Genesis.  If one would expect the intrusion of  these non-Hebrew words anywhere 
 in 
the Bible, surely it would be in the Joseph story, which is set in  Egypt.  
In his study of Egyptian loanwords in  the Hebrew Bible, T.O. Lambdin 
identifies about 40 Egyptian loanwords in the  Bible.  But only 5 of these 
occur 
in  the Joseph story, and none of them is unique to Genesis 37-50.”  Victor 
P. Hamilton, “The Book of  Genesis: Chapters 1-17” (1990), p. 73. 
On the other hand, back in the  historically-attested world, we’ve got 
Amarna Letter EA 273 which is talking  about the  i-d-e-n-t-i-c-a-l  situation 
as is the bulk of the  Patriarchal narratives, namely the crisis for 
tent-dwellers in the eastern  Ayalon Valley in Year 14 when tentdweller-hating 
Yapaxu, the firstborn son of  the prior princeling ruler, the Amorite 
Milk-i-Ilu, 
threatened to drive the  tent-dwellers out of their beloved homeland.  We 
should focus on what happened  historically:  the early Hebrew  tent-dwellers 
seem to have used IR-Heba’s former scribe to write down  Canaanite/Hebrew 
words in Akkadian cuneiform, so that the Patriarchal narratives  were reduced 
to writing about four years after Year 14.  What’s there to gain by talking 
about  hypothetical Israelite slaves in Egypt who did not exist  
historically?   There are only  40 Egyptian loanwords [excluding Egyptian 
proper 
names] in the entire Bible,  very few of which show up in Genesis. 
We should instead be discussing what  actually happened to the early 
Hebrews, namely the perilous situation of the  tent-dwelling first Hebrews who 
were trying to live a peaceful life in  south-central Canaan in Year 14.  We 
should ask whether we can prove  linguistically that the first Hebrews 
retained a scribe to write down the  Patriarchal narratives shortly after this 
succession crisis in the Ayalon Valley, using Akkadian cuneiform to write  
Canaanite/pre-Hebrew/Hebrew words.  As such proof, we should look for a 
confusion 
of the gutturals in  non-Hebrew foreign names, yet otherwise 
letter-for-letter perfect Late Bronze  Age spelling of all those exotic foreign 
names, 
which could only have resulted  from the Patriarchal narratives having been 
written down in Akkadian cuneiform a  few years after Year 14.  Isn’t it  more 
exciting and fruitful to talk about what actually is historically attested  
as having happened, and what actually is in fact in the received text of the 
 Patriarchal narratives, rather than talking about non-existent Israelite 
slaves  in Egypt and the virtual absence of Egyptian loanwords in the Joseph 
story  [excluding Egyptian proper names]? 
Why steer the conversation to what did  n-o-t  happen historically 
[Israelite slaves in  Egypt], based on what’s attested, and  what is  n-o-t  in 
the 
received text of the Patriarchal  narratives [any significant number of 
Egyptian loanwords in the Joseph  story]?  Why not instead compare, on  the 
historical side, what’s reported in the Patriarchal narratives straight up  to 
what’s reported in Amarna Letter EA 273, and on the linguistics side examine  
the confusion of the gutturals in the Egyptian proper names in the Joseph 
story,  whereas in all other ways the spelling of these Late Bronze Age 
Egyptian names  is absolutely perfect? 
We may be able to prove, based on historical  linguistics, that the 
Patriarchal narratives as a written document are a good  700 years or so older 
than 
is currently thought.  What’s needed in that regard is to focus  on the 
non-Hebrew proper names in the received text, and ask whether they bear  all 
the telltale signs of a composition that was recorded in Akkadian cuneiform  
shortly after Akhenaten’s death, and then for the most part (excluding 
chapters  14 and 49 of Genesis) not transformed into alphabetical Biblical 
Hebrew 
until  7th century BCE Jerusalem. 
Jim  Stinehart 
Evanston,  Illinois
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