It's definitely not waw-conversive, which suggests the waw on the wayyiqtol 
inverts the tense. I like the term 'waw progressive' personally, or just simply 
'wayyiqtol verb'.


GEORGE ATHAS
Dean of Research,
Moore Theological College (moore.edu.au)
Sydney, Australia

From: "J. Leake" <[email protected]<mailto:[email protected]>>
Reply-To: "[email protected]<mailto:[email protected]>" 
<[email protected]<mailto:[email protected]>>
Date: Friday, 12 April 2013 10:55 AM
To: George Athas <[email protected]<mailto:[email protected]>>
Cc: B-Hebrew <[email protected]<mailto:[email protected]>>
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Hebrew was linguistically isolated?

Not _identical_, Lewis. I mean, plurals are in -īn (admittedly as in Mishnaic 
Hebrew), the first person pronoun is אוך which could easily be 'anōk as in 
Phoenician. Doesn't it have a hištaph'el in it somewhere, a form that is hardly 
active in Hebrew (just the single doubly defective השתחוה, probably not seen as 
anything but an odd verb)? And we mustn't forget that we only have the 
consonantal framework - the vowelling might have been quite different from 
contemporary Hebrew. But of course it is very strikingly similar, down to 
waw-conversive or whatever the name for it is these days, and, I agree, a 
dialect (except משע had an army and 'a dialect with an army' is a language, so 
the saying goes - אַ שפּראַך איז אַ דיאַלעקט מיט אַן אַרמיי און פֿלאָט being 
the original according to Wikipedia...)

John Leake
The Open University

Aus mein iPad geschickt.
On 12 Apr 2013, at 01:10, George Athas wrote:







Posted on behalf of Lewis Reich :




It's clear from the Mesha stela, whose inscription is linguistically identical 
to Biblical Hebrew, that Hebrew and Moabite ( and Ammonite and Edomite) are 
merely dialects off each other.





Lewis Reich




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