They&#x27;re homonyms - the Proto-Semitic roots are <ayin><Hêth><mīm> (no 
<ghayin> or <χêth>) so both &#x27;roots&#x27; are probably etymologically 
connected , but since both ideas are visible in Arabic, Aramaic, Phoenician (I 
think) and Hebrew (I&#x27;ve only seen the food side in Ugaritic, but I&#x27;m 
relying on a primer), the split in meaning must be at a very early stage of the 
language, Proto-West-Semitic, if there&#x27;s not any borrowing going on.
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