Dear Bryant, I will make comments your last two points. Onsdag 15. Mai 2013 16:56 CEST skrev "Rev. Bryant J. Williams III" <[email protected]>: > George, Rolf, et al, > > First, thank you all for this discussion. > > Second, if George is correct regarding the wayyiqtol in narrative is actually > a "present tense" or "live action" verb, then how does one explain its use in > poetic and prophetic texts? > > Third, if Rolf is correct about the wayyiqtol developing from Medieval use in > synagogues, then is there really such a thing as a "wayyiqtol" since it > appears that it developed from waw + yiqtol with a doubling of the yodh?
RF: Yes, there is no such thing as a *grammatical form* WAYYIQTOL that is distinguished from the *grammatical forms* YIQTOL and WEYIQTOL. My argument is that Classical Hebrew, like Aramaic, Phoenician, and Ugaritic (the disticntion between YAQTUL and YAQTULU is questionable) has one prefix conjugation and one suffix conjugation. > > Fourth, it appears that the DSS would have more influence on what is > determined to be Hebrew Grammar? RF: No, I do not think that the DSS has, or has had, much influence of Hebrew Grammar. For all who are interested in the meaning of Hebrew verbs I recommend the book: L. McFall, "The Enigma of the Hebrew Verbal System," 1982. The author discusses the different explanations of WAYYIQTOL from the Middle Ages and to the middle of the 20th century. There are surprisingly many different explanations. Best regards, Rolf Furuli Stavern Norway > > Rev. Bryant J. Williams III _______________________________________________ b-hebrew mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
