On Fri, Jun 14, 2013 at 03:26:19PM -0700, K Randolph wrote: > Ken: > > On Fri, Jun 14, 2013 at 12:06 PM, Ken Penner <[email protected]> wrote: > > > Do the following help? > > > > Joüon §59g: "In the light of Ugr. tštḥwy “she prostrates herself,” what > > used to be considered hitpa̧ʿlẹl, represented almost entirely by the > > frequent הִשְׁתַּחֲוָה to worship, to prostrate oneself, is most likely a > > Hištafʿel of √ חוי." > > > > >From where does he get this? > > > > > Joüon §79t: > > "Verb חיה: Hištafʿel form הִשְׁתַּחֲוָה to bow down, to prostrate oneself, > > to worship. > > The original root is חוי, i.e. ל״י (cf. § a). The conjugation is hištafʿel > > (§ 59g; not Hitpaʿlel). The form expresses the causative reflexive action > > to bow down, to prostrate oneself(). > > In the perfect the primitive form is hištaḥway. The future *yištaḥway has > > become יִשְׁתַּחֲוֶה (3rd pl. יִשְׁתַּחֲווּ). The apocopated form is > > *yišta'ḥw, in which the consonantal w becomes the vowel u: וַיִּשְׁתַּ֫חוּ. > > > > Are there any other verbs in Biblical Hebrew that have this > conjugation? Can you list a few examples?
No. There are not. But causative stems with š-/s- are usual in many semitic languages, e.g. Aramaic, Akkadian, Ugaritic, Arabic, Geez. > If not, Biblical Hebrew does have a few quadriliteral roots, and this > follows the pattern of being one, namely שחוה $XWH, used only in Hitpael. > > There appear to be a few uses of the root שחה $XH in the Hitpael. Its form > is very similar to שחוה $XWH. No, it isn't. Show me another example of a triliteral root in any semitic language being extended by a consonantal W between the 2nd and 3rd radical... This is simply nonsense, it doesn't happen in the semitic languages. > That he uses the word “future” when there is no such conjugation in > Biblical Hebrew doesn’t speak well of him. > > > > Observation. In 2Kg 5.18 הִשְׁתַּחֲוָיָתִי the inf. has been vocalised in > > Biblical Aramaic fashion (wrongly, actually, for with the suffixes the inf. > > takes the ending ūt(). After a scribe had wrongly spelled וי, this sequence > > was later vocalised mechanically in the Aramaic fashion. One should read > > (in the 3rd pers.) הִשְׁתַּחֲווֹתוֹ." > > > > Does he have any documentation to back up this claim? > > This verse reads quite well as written using an unpointed text. How? > > > Karl W. Randolph. Petr Tomasek _______________________________________________ b-hebrew mailing list [email protected] http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew
