I believe Israel exempted Yemenite Jews from its monogomy rules when they came in the 1950s.
Islam *allows* polygamy, while the Mormons required it, which makes a big difference in how one views the free exercise issues. Paul Finkelman Quoting Sanford Levinson <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>: > A colleague of mine came by my office today to ask about the > Jewish > position on monogramy. I told him that there is/was a > dramatic difference > between Sephardi and Ashkenazic Jewry, that monogamy was > decreed sometime > in the 11th century (I believe) by (I believe) an Eastern > European rabbi, > whereas polygamy remained into the 20th century in a number of > Sephardi > communities. Indeed, I had a friend in Israel who had two > mothers-in-law, > because his (now former) wife had emigrated from Yemen, and > her father had > two wives. I'm quite certain that Israel requires monogamy > among Jews--I > have no idea what the situation is with regard to Israeli > Moslems--but > polygamy was "grandfathered," as it were, for Jewish > immigrants who were > involved in plural marriages. > > I hypothesized to my colleague that an obvious explanation for > the > difference between the two communities is that Jews in Europe > felt > pressures to conform to the mores of the dominant Christian > community, > which was monogamous, whereas there was obviously no such > pressure in > Moslem-dominated Sephardi areas. Similarly, I have little > doubt that the > Church of LDS would have maintained polygamy had the > surrounding culture > been more tolerant. > > sandy > >
