On 29 Jun 2013, at 13:49, Evgenii Rudnyi wrote:

On 29.06.2013 11:19 Bruno Marchal said the following:

On 28 Jun 2013, at 20:35, Evgenii Rudnyi wrote:


...

Do you mean this sentence

"But the theories of the phenomenological life world and the
hermeneutics of the meaning of communication seem to defy classical
scientific explanations."

This one, yes. the hermeneutics might defy Aristotle metaphysics, but
why to subscribe to it given that we have not yet abroad the
mind-body problem.

The problem is not with classical science, but with the fact that the
author seems unable to challenge *some* theories.

But this was from the abstract you gave, so if the paper is more
interesting, don't take this too much seriously. But it seems to me
that he was confusing science with Aristotle metaphysics (like
many).


I believe that your term "Aristotle metaphysics" is misleading. I am afraid that you give it your own specific meaning that for example to me is unclear.


I have often said that Aristotle was not "aristotelian", but I keep the word, like in the literature, except that I have eleraged it a bit. We are not trying to do history.

By Aristotelian I mean someone defending the doctrine that there is primary matter, or that we have to assume matter in the TOE, and so that matter is not an emergent notion.

By Platonist, I mean the doctrine that matter and the whole physical reality is not the primitive reality, that it is only the border of something else (notably with comp, some aspect of arithmetical truth when seen from inside).






I guess that you mean an association of science with materialism.

With weak materialism. The belief in Matter (primary matter).




I am not sure though that Aristotle's philosophy belongs to materialism.

Only weak materialism.
Aristotle made explicit that primary matter is assumed in his metaphysics.



Say, Aristotle has not shared atomistic world view and he has four causes including final cause. Classic science that Brier refers to is primarily atomistic and is based on effective cause only. One could probably find some relationship with Aristotle's metaphysics but to say that they are equivalent, in my view, it is overkill.

I did not make that equivalence, to be sure.

Bruno




Evgenii

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http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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