On 19 Aug 2014, at 21:04, Platonist Guitar Cowboy wrote:




On Tue, Aug 19, 2014 at 6:16 PM, meekerdb <[email protected]> wrote:
On 8/19/2014 8:21 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:

On 18 Aug 2014, at 09:56, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:

On 18 August 2014 15:20, meekerdb <[email protected]> wrote:
On 8/17/2014 8:49 PM, Stathis Papaioannou wrote:

Both consciousness and physics supervene on the computations, which exist
necessarily. Consciousness does not supervene on the physics.


Yes, I agreed to that. The question was can consciousness supervene on
computations that do not instantiate any physics?  I think not.


I think that a sustained stream of consciousness will probably be part of a
computation that instantiates physics - instantiates a whole universe
complete with physics.


That's answering the converse question.  So if the early universe was
instantiated by a computation (a computation that instantiated physics) then
you think that part of the early universe was a sustained stream of
consciousness. How do you conceive of this consciousness' relation to the physics? For example might it be some structure in the inflaton field? Or
do you think of it as separate from physical structures?

I think of consciousness as a side-effect of, at least, the
computations that give rise to the type of behaviour we observe in
intelligently-behaving entities. It could also be that much simpler
computations have a much simpler consciousness, i.e. panpsychism, but
I don't know how to prove this; it's hard enough to prove that even
other people are conscious.

However, the point that I wanted to make was that if computation can
instantiate consciousness then there is nothing to stop a recording, a
Boltzmann Brain, a rock and so on from doing so; for these possibilities
have been used as arguments against computationalism or to arbitrarily
restrict computationalism.


Why is it arbitrary to say that a computation that is very simple, has not possible branchings for example, cannot be conscious while some more complex computation, one controlling an autonomous Mars Rover for example, may be?

What is arbitrary is to say that a computer that has unused components
inactivated, as per Maudlin or Bruno's MGA, is unconscious or
differently conscious.

Do you agree with Bruno that consciousness is all-or-nothing?

No, I think there are different degrees of consciousness.

Unless we have a vocabulary problem, this seems to contradict your fading qualia argument. If you allow degrees of consciousness, it becomes unclear why we can't have partial zombie. The guy would still say "I don't feel any change", but actually would be less and less conscious, just unconsciously so.

When I say that consciousness is all-or-nothing, I just mean that either someone is conscious, or is not. It does not mean that there are no consciousness state which looks like, when we come back from them, as being slightly conscious. Those are only special altered state of consciousness.

If your altered state of consciousness has no self-awareness, is it still "consciousness"? And there's self-consciousness, i.e. being aware you are thinking. So it's not 'fading' qualia, it different categories of consciousness. I'd say my dog has self-awareness, e.g. he knows his name. But I'm not so sure he is self-conscious. The koi in my pond are aware, but I doubt they are self-aware.

If one assumes that physics is not Turing emulable, due to a sort of random FPI selection property, where it thus becomes measure on infinities of computations, then I don't see a problem to reason "consciousness is perhaps closer in kinship to truth/reality than to some Turing emulable structure".

OK. Although I would put it in this way: if one assumes that one is computable, then by the random FPI selection property physics has to have at least some non computable components (which might the quantum observable in some base, or not).




This would be another type of "brute fact", even though on the surface, it would seem that comp implies consciousness to be something Turing emulable (gotta watch out...). So, with this line of argument, in basic existential sense, consciousness just is there or it isn't.

When I used "degrees" earlier in the thread, I was thinking altered states, that suggest that capacity of self-reference and amnesia relative to some normal level (e.g. "I am really drunk, not just tipsy"), is computable, so there appears to be more/less. Perhaps because the machine level of description IS amenable to influence by quantifiable things, like dosage of foods and chemicals. But I guess this would boil down to some phenomenological 1p view. It's tricky because consciousness pastes the machine to truth, so there is a lot of potential for talking nonsense here... PGC

I agree. In this frame it comes from the simple "self-referential tautology" (Gödel's II), <>t -> <>[]f, provable by the machine. The supreme difficulties for the machines: the consistency of inconsistency, which follows from consistency.

In the toy realm of the ideal rational machine, public certainty is already a form of madness. But no so for private certainty, nor first person plural private certainty, but then only confined in that private 1p space (and never imposed on others (but then: what for the children? I can't solve that problem).

For a platonist, the freedom of religions seems like pushing the political correctness up to the point to let your plane piloted by monkeys.

Freedom of consistent religion and medicine with probable facts, without the traditional misuse of statistics, of course.

Bruno




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