2017-05-03 21:46 GMT+02:00 Brent Meeker <[email protected]>:

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> On 5/3/2017 9:47 AM, David Nyman wrote:
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> On 2 May 2017 11:18 p.m., "Brent Meeker" <[email protected]> wrote:
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> On 5/2/2017 2:29 PM, David Nyman wrote:
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> On 2 May 2017 9:57 p.m., "Brent Meeker" <[email protected]> wrote:
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> On 5/2/2017 1:09 PM, David Nyman wrote:
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> On 2 May 2017 7:21 p.m., "Brent Meeker" <[email protected]> wrote:
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> On 5/2/2017 1:01 AM, Bruno Marchal wrote:
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> Your answer seems to be that physics can be an illusion of digital
> thought, therefore primary physics is otiose.  But thought can't be a
> consequence of physics because....well you just don't see how it could be.
>
>
> Not at all. It cannot be because you need to give a role to the primary
> matter which is not emulable by the UD, nor FPI-recoverable.
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> The obvious "role" is that some things exist and some don't.  I don't know
> anyone who calls this "primary matter", but it's what is not UD emulable.
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> But what are your grounds for discriminating which things exist and which
> don't?
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> Empiricism.
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> That's a slogan not an explanation.
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> That's right - you asked for grounds.
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> I think you could be more helpful than this.
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> If anything, it strikes me that the history of human enquiry is rather
> conducive to the view that whatever limits we try to impose on "what
> exists" are in all likelihood destined soon to be surpassed.
>
>
> Actually it has been the reverse.  Relativity places a limit on speed,
> quantum mechanics places a limit on measurements, Goedel found a limit on
> proofs.  Laplace was the last physicist who thought we could predict
> everything.  We haven't been the center of the universe for a long time.
>
>
> Very selective. What about the string landscape, eternal inflation or for
> that matter the CUH? Maybe you'll say that these are as yet unproven
> hypotheses, but are you willing to say in principle​ they're barking up the
> wrong tree?
>
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> Except for eternal inflation, they aren't even developed enough to be
> hypotheses.  I'm willing to bet that they will imply limits on what
> exists.  Even CUH does that, it implies real numbers and theories that
> assume them don't exist.
>
>
> Sure, but my point is that all these ideas lead to a broader ontology than
> you seemed to be suggesting: i.e the theoretical recipe for what exists and
> what doesn't extends beyond the physics we observe locally. But even comp
> doesn't claim that *everything* exists. In fact its ontology is extremely
> restrictive.
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> In any case, I still don't see that you've made a convincing argument for
> your "groundless" circular explanations.
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> It's not an argument - it's an observation that that's the way
> explanations work.
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>
> Not all explanations. And in particular not ontological ones.
>
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> You mean the fundamental elements of a theory - whose existence doesn't
> have an explanation.  My idea of an explanation is one that brings
> understanding - not just stops explaining.
>
>
> So is mine. So is Bruno's. What's your point?
>
>
> An explanation that reaches understanding must end with an ontology that
> is already understood.  Bruno accepts this.  He thinks we understand Peano
> arithmetic.  I think we only understand it because we refer it to
> experience with objects.  But the broader point is that you can't just pick
> some theory with an ontology and say this theory explains things.  The
> explanation is no good unless you already understand the theory's
> ontology.  So explanations of different things bottom out on different
> ontologies for different people.  This is why supernatural agents were
> popular explanations up until a few hundred years ago; agents are
> intuitively understood by people because, as social animals, evolution
> provided us with intuitions about other people.  So it was satisfying to
> explain a storm as the cloud-god was angry.  Now, some physicists would say
> it is explained by the Navier-Stokes equation - but that wouldn't really be
> right either.  In fact NOAA explains it with some simplified N-S plus some
> heuristics.
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> For example, based on your remarks above, you implicitly exclude "non
> physical" computations from your ontology (not forgetting what you said
> about ontology being theory dependent).
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> Not at all.  I've never tried to make my "virtuous circle of explanation"
> exhaustive.  I generally include "mathematics" in it, but just as indicator
> for all kinds of abstract, symbolic based systems.
>
>
> A theory explicitly based on a computational ontology includes both
> physical and non physical. Of course you could go on to say that a physical
> computer could compute anything computable; but in that case we find
> ourselves at step 7 of the UDA and the putative physical machine then takes
> on the aspect of Bruno's invisible horses. Unless you want to say that the
> comp derivation of physics is thereby merely contingently impossible.
>
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> My reservation about that argument is Bruno argues as if all the UD has to
> do is reach some state and it will have instantiated his (or someone's)
> consciousness.  But then I ask myself, "Consciousness of what?"  He thinks
> the external world is a kind of shared illusion of an equivalence class of
> "consciousness" states.  This is like the Boltzmann brain paradox without
> the solipism.  The reasonable way I can see such an equivalence class
> having a non-zero measure is if the physics is computed - not just the
> conscious perceptions of physics.  Then the physics and consciousness are
> not different ontologically, they are just different ways of organizing the
> states (like Bertrand Russell's neutral monism).
>
>
> Is this really different from what comp implies? Surely the computation of
> the physics and its appearance are indeed two different views of the same
> thing - 3p and 1p plural? As we appeared to have agreed​ earlier, at the
> point where physical computation and the substantive perception (aka
> reality) with which it is entangled emerge in tandem, virtuous explanatory
> equilibrium has been attained. But the difference in views is the key. The
> former (aka 3p or in my parlance the view from nowhere) is the ontology and
> the latter the epistemology it implies.
>
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> But so far there is nothing in Bruno's theory that makes them "the same
> thing"  every 1p thread of experience could be unrelated to every other -
> there would be no intersubjective agreement (or it would be of measure
> zero).  I think this is what he calls "the white rabbit" problem.
>
>
>
> But this doesn't answer my empirical tequila test.  Bruno replied that the
> (physical) tequila just interfered with the (physical) perception.  But in
> that case the tequila would have no affect on mathematical reasoning - but
> it does.
>
>
> You lost me.
>
>
> Have a few shots and then find the square root of 69696 in your head.
> According to Bruno our physical being is only a way of interacting with
> other physical things (like tequila), but for knowledge and beliefs about
> numbers the physical is otiose.
>
>
> Nonsense. You appear not to grasp the point that if comp is correct then
> the computational mechanisms dominating our experience (including our
> experience of mathematics) must those of the physics we typically observe.
>
>
> Depends on what you mean by comp.  You seem to engage in the same
> equivocation as Bruno.  On the one hand it means saying "yes" to the
> doctor.  On the other hand it means accepting his whole argument from that
> purportedly proving that physics is otiose.  So then the argument refers to
> itself and says if physics is otiose then the physics we observe must be
> that predicted by his theory.
>

That's not it.. the thing is if *mind* is a computational object, then
physics must be explained through computation, computations are not
physical object... If physicalness is primary, then there aren't any
computation, computations in a physically primary reality are only a "human
view" on what is really going on... Again if in this setting and you
believe that mind is a sort of computation, imagine we capture your mind
with a (though correct) program... then we run it on a different
hardware... will it be conscious ? we run it 3x slower than real time ?
still conscious ? 10x slower ? ... 10x faster ? (assuming each time we fed
it an "external" virtual world inputs at the correct rate)

Quentin


> So which "comp is correct" do you refer to?
>
> Hence mathematical intuition or inference must be inextricably entangled
> with its local physics (as neurocognition) else comp is false. I think you
> systematically confuse Bruno's interview with the machine with an
> unattained fully fledged theory appropriate to creatures as psychologically
> complex as ourselves.
>
>
> No.  I don't accept his theory because it reduces to "If this theory is
> correct then it must explain what we observe."  To be "fully fledged" one
> needs to show that it actually does explain what we observe, i.e. that
> tequila interferes with mathematical reasoning.  He passes this off as just
> solving "the white rabbit" problem, as though it were a minor point; but
> without solving that it's a theory that can explain anything, and hence
> fails to explain at all.  I'm not saying solving the white rabbit problem
> is impossible - maybe it can be.  Bruno's other claim is that his theory
> models the relation of conscious thought and physics.  But this also seems
> dubious.  It models a very idealized consciousness of an omniscient
> mathematician who knows everything provable.  That's not much like any
> consciousness I've ever had - even after a whole bottle of tequila.
>
> Brent
>
> At this stage what is demanded is that the toy model explicate otherwise
> inexplicable features of its putatively vastly more developed but (by
> assumption) analogous counterpart. And of course that it not lead, even at
> such an early stage, to brute inconsistencies.
>
> David
>
>
>
> Brent
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