> On 25 Aug 2019, at 10:10, Bruce Kellett <[email protected]> wrote:
> 
> On Sun, Aug 25, 2019 at 4:42 PM Jason Resch <[email protected] 
> <mailto:[email protected]>> wrote:
> On Sun, Aug 25, 2019 at 12:51 AM Bruce Kellett <[email protected] 
> <mailto:[email protected]>> wrote:
> On Sun, Aug 25, 2019 at 2:16 PM Jason Resch <[email protected] 
> <mailto:[email protected]>> wrote:
> On Saturday, August 24, 2019, Bruce Kellett <[email protected] 
> <mailto:[email protected]>> wrote:
> On Sun, Aug 25, 2019 at 1:01 PM Russell Standish <[email protected] 
> <mailto:[email protected]>> wrote:
> On Sat, Aug 24, 2019 at 07:34:26PM -0700, 'Brent Meeker' via Everything List 
> wrote:
> > 
> > On 8/24/2019 6:31 PM, Russell Standish wrote:
> > > 
> > > That's not an apriori reason. Assuming you're in principle OK with the
> > > concept of a brain in a vat (which is a disembodied mind), then the
> > > you too do not have an apriori reason for the existence of physical
> > > things.
> > > 
> > > 
> > 
> > I don't see that a brain in a vat counts as a disembodied mind.  Do you mean
> > a brain that has no environment to perceive or act on?  I would deny that
> > such an isolated brain instantiates a mind.  On the other hand, if the brain
> > has sensors and actuators operating, say a Mars Rover, then it isn't
> > disembodied.
> > 
> > Brent
> > 
> 
> Yes - I know your argument. In the BIV scenario, the environment could
> be simulated. Basically Descartes' evil daemon (malin genie)
> scenario. Nothing about the observed physics (bodies and whatnot)
> exists in any fundamental sense.
> 
> Presumably the vat is a physical object that provides nutrients, power, etc 
> to the BIV. That does not count as disembodied in my book.
> 
> The mind is a pattern distinct from any of it's physical incarnations.
> 
> That does not imply that it can exist without some form of physical 
> realization. 
> 
> While I agree any mind requires an instantiation/incarnation/realization, 
> before we can continue I think we need to clarify what is meant by "physical".
> 
> For example, do you think there is any important difference between a 
> mathematical structure that is isomorphic to a physical universe and that 
> physical universe?
> 
> Yes; the physical universe is self-sustaining, the mathematical structure is 
> not.


That is your hypothesis, and you are coherent: you need to abandon Mechanism, 
as you said you do.




>  
> Assuming both exist, is one capable of building conscious minds while the 
> other is not?  If one cannot, what do you think it is that "physicalness" 
> adds which is not present in that mathematical structure which enables the 
> physical one to hold conscious minds?
> 
> As I said; the physical structure exists independently, whereas the 
> mathematical structure is only an abstract construct, which does not exist 
> independently of the mind that created it.


With mechanism, we explain the mind from 2+2=4 & Co. 

Not the reverse, which does not make much sense, as all physical theories does 
the assumption of 2+2=4 & Co. 




> 
> Either way (with or without zombies in the mathematical structure) would you 
> agree that the isomorphically identical mathematical structure would contain 
> humans, human civilization, philosophers, books about consciousness, 
> arguments about qualia, and all the other phenomena we see in the physical 
> universe?
> 
> The mathematical structure might describe these things, but descriptions are 
> not the things they describe.

I think you confuse the mathematical structure, and the theory describing that 
mathematical structure. Those are very different things.



>  
> 
> Brains have mass, minds do not.
> Brains have definite locations, minds do not.
> 
> Can you prove that?
> 
> 
> A mind can exist in multiple locations if its state is duplicate (just as a 
> Moby Dick exists in many locations while a single book can exist only in one 
> location).
> 
> There is a big "if" there -- "if its state is duplicated".......
> 
>  
> Minds can exist in multiple locations at once, brains cannot.
> 
> Can you prove that? That is, show me a mind that is in several locations at 
> once.
> 
> It is a consequence of:
> - the standard cosmological model (infinite, homogenous, isotropic universe)
> - eternal inflation
> - quantum mechanics without collapse
> 
> These are different ideas. The multiverse of eternal inflation is not the 
> many worlds of Everettian QM (despite attempts to show that they are).
> 
> So unless all of those theories are false, they are a natural consequence.
> 
> The basic idea is any finite volume of finite energy contains only a finite 
> amount of information.  By the pigeon hole principle, there are only so many 
> ways matter and energy can be organized in a finite volume.  With infinite 
> space you inevitably will find repetitions of patterns (from the size of 
> skulls to the size of planets and Hubble volumes).  These repetitions, 
> however, will be very far away, so I cannot point out one to you.  This paper 
> estimates your nearest doppelganger might be 10^10^28 meters away: 
> https://space.mit.edu/home/tegmark/PDF/multiverse_sciam.pdf 
> <https://space.mit.edu/home/tegmark/PDF/multiverse_sciam.pdf>
> 
> That is the theory. But it relies on many unproven assumptions about 
> distributions in the initial state. While eternal inflation might lead to 
> duplicate universes, it does not imply that every universe is duplicated. It 
> might well be the case that the only universes that are duplicated are 
> entirely uninteresting sterile universes without much structure. Why do you 
> think that the initial conditions of our Hubble volume should be duplicated 
> somewhere? We might come from unique initial conditions -- of measure zero in 
> the infinite extent of space in our extended universe.
> 
> 
> Of course if there is no collapse then QM also implies duplications of 
> brains.  I obtained the following 48 bits from a quantum random number 
> generator <https://qrng.anu.edu.au/RainBin.php>:
> 000111100110110110001101011110111010011101101010
> 
> Since you have looked at them, there are 2^48 new copies of your brain.  But 
> here, your mind has also differentiated, as these bits entered your conscious 
> awareness.  If instead I kept the numbers to myself, and did not tell you 
> about them, only that I saw a 48-bit number, then I would have created many 
> new physically distinct brain states without creating new mind states (for 
> you).
> 
> Everettian quantum mechanics might imply many worlds, split off as copies 
> from the world in which I exist. But these worlds are orthogonal to this 
> world. This means that the existence of such orthogonal worlds can be 
> assumed, or ignored, as you choose -- these "other worlds" have no 
> consequences for our present existence.
> 
>  
> Minds can travel from one physical universe to another, or to locations 
> beyond the cosmological horizon receding at speeds greater than c, brains 
> cannot.
> 
> Is this supposed to mean anything other than that we can think about such 
> things? Beside, what evidence do you have for the existence of other physical 
> universes to which we can travel, even in thought?
> 
> You seem to assume a lot of mythology here.
> 
> No mythology involved here.
> 
> Let's say we simulate another physical universe with completely different 
> physical laws.  And we simulate it in sufficient detail that we can witness 
> life evolve in that universe, and eventually evolve brains and consciousness. 
>  We can then "abduct" one of those beings into our universe by copying its 
> information into our own, we might even equip it with a robotic body so that 
> we can interact with that alien in our own universe.  This being was able to 
> travel from one universe to another, though its physical brain are forever 
> stuck in the physical universe where it evolved.
> 
> I thought that your scenario involved a simulated "other world". That 
> simulation is presumably performed on a computer in our world, so there is no 
> transfer of a conscious mind from one physical universe to another.
> 
> As a related question, if you simulate consciousness in a computer, is the 
> simulated mind necessarily conscious? For example, is the "Eliza" program 
> created at MIT conscious when running one of its scripts?
> 
> This is an important question for the AI program. If you simulate a physical 
> brain by simulating the detailed behaviour and interconnections of all the 
> neutrons and other structure in the brain, will that be capable of 
> consciousness? Or if consciousness is actually a computation independent of 
> these neural processes, can you create consciousness only by actually running 
> the same (or similar) program on a computer?

Yes, if the brain is emulated at the right level, which existence is part of 
the Digital Mechanist assumption.In arithmetic, the brain is emulated/simulated 
at all levels. The physical reality has to be given by the statistics on all 
computations, structured by the logic of self-reference. That works rather 
well, up to now. We can only pursue the testing and see.

Bruno



> 
> Bruce 
> 
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