> What about the American tradition of presumption of innocence?

Tell that to the innocent at Gitmo.

On an abstracted issue, raised later in the thread:

English law was changed in 1996 to essentially combine "libel" and "slander" as 
"defamation".

http://www.opsi.gov.uk/acts/acts1996/1996031.htm

It was felt that - with new media - the distinction was hard to maintain - a 
"slanderous"
(originally, verbal) comment might (with new technology) be recorded, 
digitised, processed and
otherwise recorded for posterity - it therefore had the same legal weight as 
libel, which was
always regarded as permanently recorded and therefore damaging into the 
indefinite future.

But.  In order to be "defamed" you have to have some "fame" to start with.  It 
really is the
literal interpretation - "de-faming" is the removal of some kind of "fame".  It 
gets a lot
more complex.  And it gets VERY complex with product libel, because the 
complainant has to
prove actual pecuniary loss.  Which means not only proving that the alleged 
libel cost you a
deal, but also that the deal you lost would have been profitable - which means 
opening your
company's books to the court.

Thank heavens it's Friday, and even the Friday before Christmas.  Best to all.

-- 
  Phil Payne
  http://www.isham-research.co.uk
  +44 7833 654 800

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