There would be no war if the government or property owner in question 
is allowed to secede. As Jeff pointed out the constitution does not 
forbid a state from seceding, some of the states clearly reserved 
that right as a condition of  signing the 
constitution.                   
     Even if prepretual union meant that secession was not allowed 
under the Articles the Constitution was not an amendment of the 
Articles, so the Articles has no bearing on the contractual 
relationship of the Constitution. You also need to take into account 
the words in some of the state constitution which basically reconizes 
secession and even dissolvement of the state 
government.                       
         It also pays to understand that the state governments were 
not governments of We the people as in all the voting age adults and 
thus the federal government was not by consent of we the people since 
the state governments were not. I think in 1790 less than a third of 
the voting age adults agreed to state hood in my state and in some 
counties it was much less than that.Best I remember the majority who 
could vote carried in only the Eastern Counties of TN, the middle 
counties and western counties it did not even carry a majority of 
those who could vote. Of course the Eastern Counties had the most 
voters.--- In [email protected], [EMAIL PROTECTED] wrote:
>  
> Here's the problem.  The Articles of Confederation or association  
states 
> that the former colonies which became states were a "perpetual 
union" and  then 
> the successor constitution described the states as a "more perfect  
union".  
> Then there is the 10th amendment to the constitution which sets a  
mechanism on 
> certain things that have to go through congress.
>  
> So what is the mechanism for secession short of civil war?  David  
H.
>  
>  
> In a message dated 9/25/05 7:22:52 P.M. Central Standard Time,  
> [EMAIL PROTECTED] writes:
> 
> I think  the right of secession extends even  lower than the state 
> governments  all the way down to a single property owner. Now the 
> Merriam- Webster  defines sovereighty as the ablity to govern 
without 
> external force, that  can be a country of 300 million, a state of 
> 500,000, a country with the  population of Lieninstein, an area the 
size 
> of the Vatican ( which I think  is 80 acres) or even a single 
family 
> with less than 5 acres if that family  can govern without external 
> force. If that family runs the Bates Motel and  they knock off 
their 
> customers it is very likely they can not govern  without external 
force. 
> If they run a nice place then I see no reason why  they should not 
be 
> reconnized as a sovereirnity ( a mans home is his  castle and thus 
his 
> sovereign domain) The right of sovereignty and  nullification by 
juries 
> and nullfication of federal laws by state  governments are 
necessary 
> checks against power.--- 
> 
> 
>  
> 
> 
> [Non-text portions of this message have been removed]




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