Is Paul allowing for property owners to secede? If not this is just 
going around in circles, he is not showing any reasonable arguments 
for his conclusions if he does not allow for secession. THe ruling 
class weither they be the few or a majority use similar agruments 
that is " We rule because we say so and we do not have to give a good 
reason, so do what you are told and shut up". Sponner had a good 
reply to that which was brought home in the old saying " what goes 
around comes around".--- In [email protected], 
<[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
>
> From: Paul <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
> > Wrong.  In otherwords the property you pay for, have the reciept 
and
> > deed for is yours alone and I have no claim to it, but if you 
want to
> > bring that property across my nations borders, you must pay for 
the
> > PRIVILEGE to do so.  Your property rights DO NOT entitle you to 
bring
> > your goods across national borders.
> 
> Then prove it.  Offer a logical argument.  Just because you "say it 
is so" is not proof or a logical argument.
> 
> > No matter who you bought it from, who you negotiated the price 
with,
> > whom you purchased it from, etc. you DO NOT have the right to
> > transport those goods across national borders.  You may have this
> > PRIVILEGE if you choose to pay for it.  And this has nothing to do
> > whatsoever with your ownership of those goods and does not 
> > infringe on your ownership rights in even the slightest way.  
> 
> Since you have never offered any thing aside from "because I say it 
is so", I am free to reject this irrational diatribe.
>  
> > If you buy something online, you often have to pay for shipping 
costs.
> > Does this mean they're infringing on your ownership of the item?  
Not
> > at all.  Shipping costs are unrelated to the cost of the item 
itself
> > and do not effect your ownership of the goods.
> 
> No, not always.  Some times the seller pays, or it is shared.  But 
that is between myself and the seller.  The government is not 
properly involved.  The same as when I move my goods across my 
property and across those imaginary lines.
> 
> > I have never said the Constitution gives me the right to infringe 
on
> > your property or your rights and I've never suggested that anyone
> > should infringe on your property or rights.  I've only stated the 
FACT
> > that tariffs do not infringe upon your property or your rights, 
> > and in fact have nothing to do with your ownership or rights.
> 
> That it is a libertarian stance to do this is not a fact.  The fact 
is your position is that of an authoritarian.  And is in no way 
libertarian.  If it is I invite you to try and prove it.  With 
evidence, logic or proof.
> 
> > You have claimed a right you do not have.  You have suggested 
that by
> > buying property, you are magically given carte blanche to take 
your
> > goods into any country on the globe to do with them as you please
> > regardless of whether the people of that country want you there or
> > not.  This is obviously not the case.
> 
> I am saying that it is an act of aggression to interfere with that 
right.  I have proven over and over again that it is an act of 
aggression and you have stated your support for tariffs.  You there 
for support aggression and theft.  Either you do not support 
aggression or you do support tariffs.  Which is it?  Moving my goods 
across my property (imaginary lines for borders don't count) is my 
right.  If I own property across one of these lines, I have the right 
to move that property as I please.
> 
> Here are some examples where you philosophy falls short and actual 
libertarianism does not.
> 
> If I buy goods and move them into my country with the intent of 
personal use and subsequent to that I receive an offer that is just 
to good to pass up, what then?
> 
> If I buy lemon trees in a foreign country and plant them and then 
start selling lemon aid, is the lemon aid subject to tariff?  The 
lemons?  The trees?
> 
> BWS
>






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