----------------------------------------> Date: Sun, 14 Oct 2007 03:00:43 
-0500> From: [EMAIL PROTECTED]> To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]> Subject: Re: [MD] "100% 
confident">> David -->>> There are several key misconceptions at work in your 
questions here.>> The "unknown" you refer to is only conceptually or 
intellectually unknown>> but it is known in a different way. It's a distinct 
category of empirical>> reality, one usually overlooked or dismissed as 
unimportant by traditional>> philosophy - even traditional empiricists. This 
conceptually unknown is>> what Pirsig calls the pre-intellectual experience and 
what James calls>> pure experience. Dewey talks about it in terms of the unique 
"peculiar>> quality" of the total situation. It is accounted for in the MOQ and 
is>> called>> dynamic quality. The subsequent discussions about this experience 
is an>> experience of a different sort. In the MOQ this would be called 
static>> quality,>> hopefully and more specifically, static intellectual 
quality. James also>> uses>> the terms static and dynamic but what makes that 
so interesting, I think,>> is that Pirsig arrived at these terms independently 
and only later>> discovered>> the parallel.>> 

Ham said to dmb:
You're right in that what Pirsig and James call "pre-intellectual" or "pure" 
experience is experience of a different sort. In fact, it is not experience at 
all. Experience is always conceptual (i.e., intellectually and objectively 
perceived). As a psychologist, James should have been more precise in his 
epistemological terminology. This is why I refer to pure Value as 
pre-intellectual "sensibility" rather than experience.

dmb replies:
That simply doesn't make sense. How can "sensibility" be counted as something 
other than an experience? And the assertion that all experience is conceptual 
defies the fact that infants have non-conceptual experiences every day. 
Contemporary psychologist will tell you that the subject-object distinction is 
formed in this period of life as the child acquires language. James was 
arguably the finest psychologist who ever lived and was way ahead of his time 
in indentifying these pre-intellectual experiences and taking them seriously. 
You're free to disagree, of course, but that disagreement has to make some 
sense. How can pure experience be an experience of a different sort and also 
not an experience at all? How can sensiblity be known if not in experience? 
Your comments here are logically impossible, unsupported by facts or reason and 
is otherwise downright goofy. 

Ham said:
I disagree only with your statement that Oneness can be known empirically. Only 
experience is empirical. The sense of pure Value is the essence of man, but it 
is not Oneness. The individual turns value into experience -- actually 
"abstracting" it differentially for itself, thereby reducing (negating) its 
essential otherness (the essent) to objective being.

dmb quotes Pirsig from ZAMM, page 126:
"In all of the Oriental religions great value is placed on the Sanskrit 
doctrine of Tat tvam asi, "Thou art that," which asserts that everything you 
think you are and everything you think you percieve are undivided. To realize 
fully this lack of division is to become enlightened." This is the experience 
of Oneness and this experience has been reported by people from all over the 
planet for thousands of years. We can debate the meaning of it, but simply 
denying that there is such an experience is the worst kind of ignorance, the 
willful kind. And if this is not an experience, then what would you be 
"abstracting" in order to turn it into an experience? Again, your assertions 
are logically impossible and just plain goofy.






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