Bo

you wrote:
>In Homer's time (1000 BC?) the Q-evolution had not reached the
>intellectual level, then neither Stone- nor Bronze Age had arrived
>there (not all present day civilizations for that matter) There are
>more examples of the Quality premises leading to the
>intellect=S/O conclusion, but enough for now.

My thoughts about the MOQ levels atm:

I have to say, as I see History, from an MOQ perspective, I don't see how 
the Intellectual level should be credited to the Greeks only, If Pirsig says 
so, I think I will have to disagree.  Rather I have a thought that the 
intellectual level is something that humans have had, and carried with them 
for a very long time, and that it was this level that allowed them to as 
early as 8000 years BC develop rather advanced societies.  The social level 
as such was the dominant level, maybe as far on as into "modern time" 
(whenever you choose to date that to). But, the intellectual level has been 
there for a very long time, and the social level, as well as responding in 
its own way to DQ also had to respond to the new thoughts that DQ caused the 
Intellectual level to create, hence the early Sumerian cultures did 
structure their society on a religious basis  - it was the first 
semi-intellectual understanding of the world, derived from DQ stimulating 
the intellectual level, that they had to work in into their social 
structures. Gradually, the intellectual level grew stronger, and one can 
perhaps see the last 10,000 years of history as a huge war between 
Intellectual patterns of value and social patterns of value, where only 
recently the Intellectual patterns have gained the upper hand.

I may have missed a lot here, and if I have, please point it out to me, I am 
far from dogmatic. Perhaps it is a S/O ghost that makes me analyze it like 
this, but if so, can you point out how?

MVH

Chris 

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