[Krimel]
recently I asserted that one of
the chief motivations of Plato and other early Greek thinkers was to
incorporate the stunning achievements of the Greek mathematicians into
the
lives of ordinary Athenians. Matt then advanced the notion that Plato
was
driven by bitterness and personal grief over the treatment of his mentor
at
the hands of Athenian authorities. Who can say which is which? Does
either
theory account for the facts or just express our respective personal
prejudice?

Ron:
I think what Plato was upset about was that Socrates was condemned to
death
Via Sophist arguments based on rhetorical argument. What we would today
call
Spin doctors. What he borrowed from the mathematicians of his day was
their new method of Building logical arguments using deductive rather
than inductive reasoning inferred from universal understandings such as
concrete referents or established laws which changed
The forum of the dialectic. Consequently, crushing the Sophists in an
open debate became something like shooting fish in a barrel. Which I'm
sure
Was relished by the avenging Plato. Anchoring arguments in what
seemingly
Appeared to be universal concrete tangibles as axioms created an almost
Impervious method of "truth finding". Which created the need for ever
More precise law interpretation and creation. Plato found that the
mathematicians use of deductive reasoning based on axioms had huge power
Socially.
I feel he developed his concept of universal forms to belay any
arguments
That the perception of common forms is in any way subjective in origin
Thereby destroying the validity of his methods of truth finding or at
least
Calling them into question. He based the whole casaba on the brains
ability
To "connect the dots" out of random patterns. This was his axiom. The
One people still use as a proof from anything from intelligent design
To materialism. Schopenhauer wrote that "...materialism is the
philosophy of the subject who forgets to take account of himself."



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