Ron said:
If one believes that truth statements are predicated on  
agreement then rhetoric is indeed the trump card. 
but 
If one believs that truth statements are predicated on 
meaning in experience then empricism trumps rhetoric, 
since Socrates, for the most part practices the destruction 
of the rhetorical notion. hence the utility of distinguishing 
the difference btween preconceptual predication and 
conceptual predication.

Ron also said in a different place:
This is where the preconceptual/conceptual distinction is 
useful in determining the kind of analogues one is talking 
about. What types of meaning are we ascribing to "truths".. 
are they predicated on immediate experience or the 
experience of social persuasion?

John said if response to the first:
If one believes truth statements are predicated on meaning 
in experience, then one agrees that truth statements are 
predicated on agreement since meaning is predicated on 
agreement.

That's not merely a rhetorical trump card.  It's a trump Ace.

Matt:
I think John's rejoinder is effective.  When, in experience, 
you wonder about meaning, what do you do?

You ask somebody.

If you don't understand what the meaning of a sentence 
was, you often ask the producer, "What did you mean?"  If 
agreement is never obtained over "what was meant," there 
will remain obscurity over "the meaning."

Another way of putting it is to say that I don't know what 
the slogan "empiricism over rhetoric" is supposed to mean, 
because I identify "rhetoric" with "meaning in experience."

But this notion of "preconceptual predication" might be a 
useful way to state what I take us to have learned from 
post-positivism (i.e. from the attempts by professional 
philosophers to get rid of positivism, e.g. Quine, Sellars, 
Davidson, Rorty)--which is: a non-linguistic item cannot 
itself serve as predication because predication itself is a 
linguistic item.

Another way of putting it: if you are caused to think "I see 
water" by water, the water _itself_ is not the justification 
for thinking you see water, but rather the sitting of the 
thought "I think I see water because I see water" within a 
network of other thought-items (almost always _implicit_ 
items, and not self-consciously explicit).  These implicit 
relations cannot be rubbed off: as James said, the "trail of 
the human serpent is over all."  These relations include, for 
instance, other things like "I am not high" and "My senses 
are not hooked up to a computer" and "I am not in a desert 
and have not not had anything to drink in two days."

This is a complicated nettle of issues (including the thought 
that "thought-items" is more misleading than not, and that 
we should think of the mind as a muscle), ones that I do not 
do so well in articulating these days, but they are what halt 
me from seeing the general utility of the distinction between 
"predicated on immediate experience or the experience of 
social persuasion."  The reason why is because, though I 
understand the difference between seeing water and 
somebody persuading me that I'm just high, I also consider 
the human ego--the first-person "I"--to be the 
internalization of "social persuasion," of socialness.  Without 
a society, there is no "person."  Because of the freight of 
Cartesian epistemology (in which a concerted philosophical 
effort was enjoined to erase the socialness of knowing), I 
think we must be very careful in deploying the distinctions 
we do to create a general model of knowledge-formation.

So--okay, there are different "types of meaning" which we 
can pratically distinguish (by their relations to other 
"meanings").  The above is intended to show why I am not 
persuaded that I need to use the vocabulary of "immediate" 
and "preconceptual"--I think I can unpack types of meaning 
perfectly well without them.

Is it because I fear Plato, Descartes, and Kant?  Sure.  We 
just have different judgements about whether or not this 
fear is unreasonable.  I'm not suggesting that 
retro-pragmatists stop their systematization of insights 
latent in James and Dewey that were left dormant with the 
shift from an experience-vocabulary to a 
language-vocabulary, and them doing so in an 
experience-vocabulary.  I just don't see the theoretical 
conflict between their project and stating these insights in 
a language-vocabulary.  I see the "meaning" of James not 
to be in his use of "immediate experience" but in the 
relationship of that term to the other things going on.

Matt
                                          
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