My impression is that after 1905, Peirce referred to pragmaticism as a
variety of pragmatism, but since he regarded most other varieties as too
'literary' and not logically rigorous enough, considered pragmaticism the
only variety worth 'proving', maybe the only one capable of 'proof'. In that
context, a proof of pragmaticism could be (somewhat loosely) called a 'proof
of pragmatism'. In his "Prolegomena" (1906) he did once refer to his
"Apology for Pragmaticism" as a "defence of pragmatism" (CP 4.534).

 

gary f.

 

From: Stephen C. Rose [mailto:[email protected]] 
Sent: 2-May-14 9:21 PM
To: Phyllis Chiasson
Cc: peirce-l@list iupui. edu
Subject: Re: [PEIRCE-L] Chapter 7.2.2 Proof of Pragmatism & Semiotic (modest
view + overarching view incl methodeutic)

 

Thanks Phyllis - I think part of CSPs desire was to establish the scholastic
elements of his thinking. But he may also have had a genuine desire to have
his philosophy distinguished from pragmatism. If that is the case there
might be some consideration of whether we should assume and honor that wish.
I think it would help establish Peirce as a force to be reckoned with among
those who have little awareness beyond his linkage to pragmatism. 




@stephencrose <https://twitter.com/stephencrose> 

 

On Fri, May 2, 2014 at 6:48 PM, Phyllis Chiasson <[email protected]> wrote:

Good point, Stephen. 

Listers, Does anyone know whether Peirce referred to the name of this proof
differently after he coined the word pragmaticism in his 1905 essay, What
Pragmatism Is? Was he consistent in using pragmaticism rather than
pragmatism after that time?

Phyllis






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