Gary R,

 

After I mentioned Peirce’s “narrow sense” of the term “logic,” you asked, “What 
narrow sense?” What I had in mind was mainly CP 1.444:

[[ The term “logic” is unscientifically by me employed in two distinct senses. 
In its narrower sense, it is the science of the necessary conditions of the 
attainment of truth. In its broader sense, it is the science of the necessary 
laws of thought, or, still better (thought always taking place by means of 
signs), it is general semeiotic, treating not merely of truth, but also of the 
general conditions of signs being signs (which Duns Scotus called grammatica 
speculativa, also of the laws of the evolution of thought, which since it 
coincides with the study of the necessary conditions of the transmission of 
meaning by signs from mind to mind, and from one state of mind to another, 
ought, for the sake of taking advantage of an old association of terms, be 
called rhetorica speculativa, but which I content myself with inaccurately 
calling objective logic, because that conveys the correct idea that it is like 
Hegel's logic. The present inquiry is a logical one in the broad sense.]]

 

The “present inquiry” was, of course, his “Logic of Mathematics” c.1896. In his 
Outline Classification of the Sciences (EP2:260), Peirce uses “logic” in both 
senses, first the narrow and then the broad:

[[ Logic is the theory of self-controlled, or deliberate, thought; and as such, 
must appeal to ethics for its principles. It also depends upon phenomenology 
and upon mathematics. All thought being performed by means of signs, logic may 
be regarded as the science of the general laws of signs. It has three branches: 
1, Speculative Grammar, or the general theory of the nature and meanings of 
signs, whether they be icons, indices, or symbols; 2, Critic, which classifies 
arguments and determines the validity and degree of force of each kind; 3, 
Methodeutic, which studies the methods that ought to be pursued in the 
investigation, in the exposition, and in the application of truth. Each 
division depends on that which precedes it. ]]

 

You can read this as classifying logic in the broad sense under the Normative 
head, and I think Jeff and John have already explained why these divisions are 
not mutually exclusive in the practice of these sciences, so I won’t object to 
that reading.

 

Earlier you quoted Peirce in 2.111:

[[ … now we have to examine whether there be a doctrine of signs corresponding 
to Hegel's objective logic; that is to say, whether there be a life in Signs, 
so that--the requisite vehicle being present--they will go through a certain 
order of development, and if so, whether this development be merely of such a 
nature that the same round of changes of form is described over and over again 
whatever be the matter of the thought or whether, in addition to such a 
repetitive order, there be also a greater life-history that every symbol 
furnished with a vehicle of life goes through, and what is the nature of it 
(emphasis added to show that this "greater life-history" of a symbol requires 
"a vehicle of life." ]]

 

Apparently you missed my response to this, so I should make it more explicit. 
You interpret it as referring to “a life form as a vehicle,” meaning by “life 
form” a category that excludes AI learning systems on the ground that they are 
“machines” and not “natural.” But Peirce does not say that. What he says is 
that the “life in Signs” can evolve only if the signs are instantiated in some 
form whose actual uses can vary. Thus a symbol can evolve and “grow” only if it 
is actually replicated many times, vocally or in print or on a computer monitor 
or in someone’s pattern of brain activity. 

 

For Peirce, it is the sign that is alive, because its vehicle is variable; but 
he does not say that the vehicle must be a “life form” in your narrow sense of 
that term. The sign/vehicle distinction here is analogous to the type/token 
distinction, or in biology, the species/population distinction. Just as a 
species cannot evolve without being instantiated in many individuals, a sign 
cannot evolve without being repeatedly instantiated in sinsigns, i.e. without 
being actually used. This is what Peirce calls the “doctrine of signs 
corresponding to Hegel's objective logic.”

 

I tried to say this earlier by saying that “I don’t agree that my laptop is a 
sign-user. I think it’s a vehicle and I’m the user (of the signs instantiated 
by the computer hardware).” But apparently that was too elliptical, so I’m 
spelling it out further here.

 

Your interpretation is based on your conviction that Peirce’s references to 
“life in signs” are metaphorical, which I don’t accept. But I won’t try to 
change your mind about that, or about the potential of learning systems to 
evolve even though they don’t fit into your concept of a “life form.” I’m just 
taking note of the difference between your reading of Peirce and mine (as mine 
is represented in Turning Signs). 

 

Gary f.

 

From: Gary Richmond [mailto:gary.richm...@gmail.com] 
Sent: 17-Jun-17 17:59
To: Peirce-L <peirce-l@list.iupui.edu>
Subject: Re: [PEIRCE-L] Re: Rheme and Reason

 

Gary F, Jeff, John S, list,

 

A half hour or so I wrote to Jeff off-list to say regarding his most recent 
post: The crucial distinction you've made here between the theoretic and the 
idioscopic sciences is, I believe, at the heart of the matter, whatever the 
'normative' concerns may be.

 

So I'm clearly confused as to what you mean by writing this, Gary:

 

GF: But I also wonder if you are classifing speculative grammar (which is part 
of “logic” in Peirce’s broad sense) as “normative” simply because you’ve 
subsumed all of semiotics under “logic” in Peirce’s narrow sense, which is 
indeed normative.

 

What narrow sense? As Jeff noted, theoretical esthetics, ethics, and the three 
branches of logic as semiotic (speculative, or theoretical grammar, critical 
logic and speculative, or theoretical rhetoric) are given as normative by 
Peirce in his late Classification of Sciences. So why are you suggesting that 
speculative grammar is not normative? Or rather, what is this distinction 
between "narrow" and "broad" that you're making? Peirce, it seems to me, 
sometimes calls the 2nd branch of logic, Critical Logic, "logic as logic." That 
would seem to be the narrower sense of logic. But all three branches are 
designated "normative" by Peirce.

 

GF: Concerning your later post, about Peirce’s classificatory schemes of 
triadic relations, I think it runs into problems with equivocation on some of 
the terms used as class names, such as “organic” and “growth,” which prevent 
its being of much use for sorting out the relations among mind, life and 
semiosis. I don’t think that can be done without delving into biology and 
physics as well as semiotics (as Terrence Deacon and others have done, and as I 
have tried to do in my book).

 

I would be interested as to where in Peirce's classification of the sciences 
list members (perhaps for the moment especially Jeff, Gary, and John) think the 
"classificatory schemes of triadic relations" (and the entire argumentation of 
"The Mathematics of Logic") ought be placed. 

 

Also, in consideration of Gary F's comments relating to biology and physics, 
apparently contra Jeff's schemata, I think the distinction Jeff made earlier 
between coenoscopic and idioscopic science is critical here. Confusion is sure 
to follow from conflating the two (as it seems to me Jeff commented on soundly 
in the exchange today on the subtle differences of meaning of "normative" in 
relation to them).

 

After quoting the first sentnece of CP 2.227 concluding that Logic as Semeiotic 
concerns itself with "what must be the characters of all signs used by a 
“scientific” intelligence, that is to say, by an intelligence capable of 
learning by experience," Gary F wrote (in part):

 

GF: Now, an artificial intelligence is called that largely because it is 
capable of learning (modifying its own algorithms) from its interaction with 
other entities, rather than passively having its “knowledge” programmed into 
it. 

 

This seems to me to (1) beg the question in its first part and (2) represent at 
most a very mechanical kind of learning which leaves out real experience in 
interaction with an environment.

 

GF: By insisting that an “AI” can only be a “machine” (and thus devoid of real 
intelligence), Gary R. is essentially claiming that an utterly mindless and 
lifeless entity is nevertheless capable of learning. 

 

You'll have to explain to me what you mean by "real intelligence" in this 
sentence.

 

GF: This is what I find implausible, considering the entanglement of 
intelligence and learning with mind, semiosis, and intentionality, as well as 
experience in the Peircean sense above. It goes without saying that all 
knowledge is in signs; surely then all learning is by means of signs, as Peirce 
strongly implies above. 

 

There is, I suppose, most certainly a kind of machine learning involved 
here--but, as I wrote earlier, when you, as you have, suggest that "insight" 
and "abduction" (and even "life") can be the result of that sort of learning 
(which I discussed in an earlier post as, as I see it, the result of the rich 
complexity of, for example, the Gobot's vast memory in relation to rule driven 
programming), then I think you go too far. 

 

GF: So the question of whether an absolutely mindless and lifeless entity is 
capable of learning cuts to the heart of semiotics, in my opinion. Not to 
mention our concept of intelligence.

 

In my view, much more needs to be discussed here in consideration of what 
machine learning implies as regards "mind" and "life"--that intelligent bot is 
yet, in my opinion, if not absolutely mindless in Peirce's sense in which mind 
would appear to occur most everywhere, nonetheless it is "lifeless" even given 
the somewhat metaphorical notion of "the life of the symbol" (which, again, 
requires--as the Peirce quotation I gave a while back and which Gary F hasn't 
yet addressed-- a life form as a vehicle.

 

Best,

 

Gary R

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